Nursing Information Technology: Jul 22, 2010

Thursday, July 22, 2010

60 Item Pediatric Nursing

60 Items pediatric Nursing questions with Rationale

Situation 1: Raphael, a 6 year’s old prep pupil is seen at the school clinic for growth and development monitoring (Questions 1-5)

1. Which of the following is characterized the rate of growth during this period?
a. most rapid period of growth

b. a decline in growth rate
c. growth spurt
d. slow uniform growth rate

Correct answer is letter B. During the Preschooler stage growth is very minimal. Weight gain is only 4.5lbs (2kgs) per year and Height is 3.5in (6-8cm) per year.
Review:
Most rapid growth and development- Infancy
Slow growth- Toddler hood and Preschooler
Slower growth- School age
Rapid growth- Adolescence

2. In assessing Raphael’s growth and development, the nurse is guided by principles of growth and development. Which is not included?
a. All individuals follow cephalo-caudal and proximo-distal
b. Different parts of the body grows at different rate
c. All individual follow standard growth rate

d. Rate and pattern of growth can be modified

Growth and development occurs in cephalo-caudal meaning development occurs through out the body’s axis. Example: the child must be able to lift the head before he is able to lift his chest. Proximo-distal is development that progresses from center of the body to the extremities. Example: a child first develops arm movement before fine-finger movement. Different parts of the body grows at different range because some body tissue mature faster than the other such as the neurologic tissues peaks its growth during the first years of life while the genital tissue doesn’t till puberty. Also G&D is predictable in the sequence which a child normally precedes such as motor skills and behavior. Lastly G&D can never be modified “Haller? (Pwede mo bang turuan mag basa ang Infant? Or patayuin sya bago pa nakakagapang?)

3. What type of play will be ideal for Raphael at this period?

a. Make believe
b. Hide and seek
c. Peek-a-boo
d. Building blocks

Correct answer is Letter A, make believe is most appropriate because it enhances the imitative play and imagination of the preschooler. C and D are for infants while letter A is B is recommended for schoolers because it enhances competitive play.

4. Which of the following information indicate that Raphael is normal for his age?
a. Determine own sense self
b. Develop sense of whether he can trust the world

c. Has the ability to try new things

d. Learn basic skills within his culture

The correct answer is letter C; because Erickson defines the developmental task of a preschool period is learning Initiative vs. Guilt. Children can initiate motor activities of various sorts on their own and no longer responds to or imitate the actions of other children or of their parents. Letter A and B is.. for you!!

5. Based on Kohlberg’s theory, what is the stage of moral development of Raphael?
a. Punishment-obedience
b. “good boy-Nice girl”

c. naïve instrumental orientation
d. social contact

Correct answer is letter C: According to Kohlber, a preschooler is under Pre-conventional where a child learns about instrumental purpose and exchange, that is they will something do for another if that that person does something with the child in return. Letter A is applicable for Toddlers and letter B is for a School age child.

Situation 2 Baby boy Lacson delivered at 36 weeks gestation weighs 3,400 gm and height of 59 cm (6-10)

6. Baby boy Lacson’s height is

a. Long
b. Short
c. Average
d. Too short

Correct answer is Letter A because the normal length of a newborn is 47.5-53.75 cm (19.5-21in) with an average of 50cm (Filipino standards po ito, pag kay Pilliteri nyo tinignan, 53cm for female and 54cm for male)

7. Growth and development in a child progresses in the following ways EXCEPT

a. From cognitive to psychosexual
b. From trunk to the tip of the extremities
c. From head to toe
d. From general to specific

Growth and development occurs in cephalo-caudal (head to toe), proximo-distal (trunk to tips of the extremities and general to specific, but it doesn’t occurs in cognitive to psychosexual because they can develop at the same time.

8. As described by Erikson, the major psychosexual conflict of the above situation is
a. Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt
b. Industry vs. Inferiority

c. Trust vs. mistrust
d. Initiation vs. guilt

According to Erikson, children 0-18 months are under the developmental task of Trust vs. Mistrust.

9. Which of the following is true about Mongolian Spots?

a. Disappears in about a year
b. Are linked to pathologic conditions
c. Are managed by tropical steroids
d. Are indicative of parental abuse

Mongolian spots are stale grey or bluish patches of discoloration commonly seen across the sacrum or buttocks due to accumulation of melanocytes and they disappears in 1 year. They are not linked to steroid use and pathologic conditions.

10. Signs of cold stress that the nurse must be alert when caring for a Newborn is:
a. Hypothermia
b. Decreased activity level
c. Shaking

d. Increased RR

Correct answer is letter D. Hypothermia is inaccurate cause normally, temperature of a newborn drop, Also a child under cold stress will kick and cry to increase the metabolic rate thereby increasing heat so B isn’t a good choice. A newborn doesn’t have the ability to shiver (Pag ikaw ay nag pa anak at ang beybe ay nanga-ngatog, naku itapon mo yan..di yan beybe itik yan.. hehe). So letter B and C is wrong. A newborn will increase its RR because the NB will need more oxygen because of too much activity.

Situation 3 Nursing care after delivery has an important aspect in every stages of delivery

11. After the baby is delivered, the cord was cut between two clamps using a sterile scissors and blade, then the baby is placed at the:

a. Mother’s breast
b. Mother’s side
c. Give it to the grandmother
d. Baby’s own mat or bed

Of course, place it at the mother’s breast for latch-on. (Note: for NSD breast feed ASAP while for CS delivery, breast feed after 4 hours) Lol, syempre d naman pwede sa grandma dba? Kasi naman hindi gatas ang ipapadede nyan, yogurt na sosyal. ewwww. LOL

12. The baby’s mother is RH(-). Which of the following laboratory tests will probably be ordered for the newborn?

a. Direct Coomb’s
b. Indirect Coomb’s
c. Blood culture
d. Platelet count

Coomb’s test is the test to determine if RH antibodies are present. Indirect Coomb’s is done to the mother and Direct Coomb’s is the one don’t to the baby. Blood culture and Platelet count doesn’t help detect RH antibodies.

13. Hypothermia is common in newborn because of their inability to control heat. The following would be an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent heat loss except

a. Place the crib beside the wall
b. Doing Kangaroo care
c. By using mechanical pressure
d. Drying and wrapping the baby

Placing the crib beside the wall is un-appropriate because it can provide heat loss by radiation. Doing Kangaroo care or hugging the baby, mechanical pressure or incubators and drying and wrapping the baby will help conserve heat,

14. The following conditions are caused by cold stress except
a. Hypoglycemia

b. Increase ICP

c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Cerebral palsy

Hypoglycemia may occur due to increase metabolic rate, And because of newborns are born slightly acidic, and they catabolize brownfat which will produce ketones which is an acid will cause metabolic acidosis. Also a NB with severe hypothermia is in high risk for kernicterus (too much bilirubin in the brain) can lead to Cerebral palsy. There is no connection in the increase of ICP with hypothermia.
(NOTE: pathognomonic sign of Kernicterus in adult- asterexis, or involuntary flapping of the hand.)

15. During the feto-placental circulation, the shunt between two atria is called
a. Ductus venosous
b. Foramen Magnum
c. Ductus arteriosus

d. Foramen Ovale

Foramen ovale is opening between two atria, Ductus venosus is the shunt from liver to the inferior vena cava, and your Ductus Arteriosus is the shunt from the pulmonary artery to the aorta. (hindi kasali sa feto-placental circulation ang Foramen Magnum, sa skull un!)

16. What would cause the closure of the Foramen ovale after the baby had been delivered?
a. Decreased blood flow

b. Shifting of pressures from right side to the left side of the heart
c. Increased PO2
d. Increased in oxygen saturation

During feto-placental circulation, the pressure in the heart is much higher in the right side, but once breathing/crying is established, the pressure will shift from the R to the L side, and will facilitate the closure of Foramen Ovale. (Note: that is why you should position the NB in R side lying position to increase pressure in the L side of the heart.)
Review:
Increase PO2-> closure of ductus arteriosus
Decreased bloodflow -> closure of the ductus venosus
Circulation in the lungs is initiated by -> lung expansion and pulmonary ventilation
What will sustain 1st breath-> decreased artery pressure
What will complete circulation-> cutting of the cord

17. Failure of the Foramen Ovale to close will cause what Congenital Heart Disease?
a. Total anomalous Pulmunary Artery

b. Atrial Septal defect
c. Transposition of great arteries
d. Pulmunary Stenosis

Foramen ovale is the opening between two Atria so, if its will not close Atrial Septal defect can occur.

Situation 4 Children are vulnerable to some minor health problems or injuries hence the nurse should be able to teach mothers to give appropriate home care.

18. A mother brought her child to the clinic with nose bleeding. The nurse showed the mother the most appropriate position for the child which is:

a. Sitting up
b. With low back rest
c. With moderate back rest
d. Lying semi flat

The correct position is making the child having an upright sitting position with the head slightly tilted forward. This position will minimize the amount of blood pressure in nasal vessels and keep blood moving forward not back into the nasopharynx, which will have the choking sensation and increase risk of aspiration. Choices b, c, d, are inappropriate cause they can cause blood to enter the nasopharynx.

19. A common problem in children is the inflammation of the middle ear. This is related to the malfunctioning of the:
a. Tympanic membrane

b. Eustachian tube
c. Adenoid
d. Nasopharynx

This is because children has short, horizontal Eustachian tubes. The dysfunction in the Eustachian tube enables bacterial invasion of the middle ear and obstructs drainage of secretions.

20. For acute otitis media, the treatment is prompt antibiotic therapy. Delayed treatment may result in complications of:
a. Tonsillitis
b. Eardrum Problems

c. Brain damage
d. Diabetes mellitus

One of the complication of recurring acute otitis media is risk for having Meningitis, thereby causing possible brain damage. That is why patient must follow a complete treatment regimen and follow up care. A and B are not complications of AOM, (lalo na ung D!!)

21. When assessing gross motor development in a 3 year old, which of the following activities would the nurse expect to finds?

a. Riding a tricycle
b. Hopping on one foot
c. Catching a ball
d. Skipping on alternate foot.

Answer is A, riding a tricycle is appropriate for a 3 y/o child. Hopping on one foot can be done by a 4 y/o child, as well as catching and throwing a ball over hand. Skipping can be done by a 5 y/o.

22. When assessing the weight of a 5-month old, which of the following indicates healthy growth?

a. Doubling of birth weight
b. Tripling of birth weight
c. Quadrupling of birth weight
d. Stabilizing of birth weight

During the first 6 months of life the weight from birth will be doubled and as soon as the baby reaches 1 year, its birth weight is tripled.

23. An appropriate toy for a 4 year old child is:
a. Push-pull toys
b. Card games

c. Doctor and nurse kits
d. Books and Crafts

Letter C is appropriate because it will enhance the creativity and imagination of a pre-school child. Letter B and D are inappropriate because they are too complex for a 4 y/o. Push-pull toys are recommended for infants.

24. Which of the following statements would the nurse expects a 5-year old boy to say whose pet gerbil just died
a. “The boogieman (kamatayan- the man with the scythe) got him”

b. “He’s just a bit dead”
c. “Ill be good from now own so I wont die like my gerbil”
d. “Did you hear the joke about…”

A 5 y/o views death in “degrees”, so the child most likely will say that “he is just a bit dead”. Personification of death like boogeyman or “kamatayan” occurs in ages 7 to 9 as well as denying death can if they will be good. Denying death using jokes and attributing life qualities to death occurs during age 3-5.

25. When assessing the fluid and electrolyte balance in an infant, which of the following would be important to remember?
a. Infant can concentrate urine at an adult level
b. The metabolic rate of an infant is slower than in adults
c. Infants have more intracellular water that adult do

d. Infant have greater body surface area than adults

Infants have greater body surface area than adult, increasing their risk to F&E imbalances. Also infants cant concentrate a urine at an adult level and their metabolic rate, also called water turnover, is 2 to 3 times higher than adult. Plus more fluids of the infants are at the ECF spaces not in the ICF spaces.

26. When assessing a child with aspirin overdose, which of the following will be expected?
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis

c. Metabolic acidosis

d. Respiratory acidosis

Remember that Aspirin is acid (Acetylsalicylic ACID), so what do you expect? (ang taray LOL) UN NA!
Review:
Pag galling sa bibig: alkalosis (hyper-emesis)
Pag galling sap wet: acidosis (diarrhea)

27. Which of the following is not a possible systemic clinical manifestation of severe burns?
a. Growth retardation
b. Hypermetabolism
c. Sepsis

d. Blisters and edema

The question was asking for a SYSTEMIC clinical manifestation, Letters A,B and C are systemic manifestations while Blisters and Edema weren’t.

28. When assessing a family for potential child abuse risks, the nurse would observe for which of the following?
a. Periodic exposure to stress
b. Low socio-economic status
c. High level of self esteem

d. Problematic pregnancies

Answer is D, Typical factors that may be risk for Child abuse are problematic pregnancies, chronic exposure to stress not periodic, low level of self esteem not high level. Also child abuse can happen in all socio-economic status not just on low socio-economic status.

29. Which of the following is a possible indicator of Munchausen syndrome by proxy type of child abuse?
a. Bruises found at odd locations, with different stages of healing
b. STD’s and genital discharges

c. Unexplained symptoms of diarrhea, vomiting and apnea with no organic basis
d. Constant hunger and poor hygiene

Munchausen syndrome by Proxy is the fabrication or inducement of an illness by one person to another person, usually mother to child. It is characterized by symptoms such as apnea and siezures, which may be due to suffocation, drugs or poisoning, vomiting which can be induced with poisons and diarrhea with the use of laxatives. Letter A can be seen in a Physical abuse, Letter B for sexual abuse and Letter C is for Physical Neglect.

30. Which of the following is an inappropriate intervention when caring for a child with HIV?
a. Teaching family about disease transmission

b. Offering large amount of fresh fruits and vegetables
c. Encouraging child to perform at optimal level
d. Teach proper hand washing technique

A child with HIV is immunocompromised. Fresh fruits and vegetables, which may be contaminated with organisms and pesticides can be harmful, if not fatal to the child, therefore these items should be avoided.

Situation 5 Agata, 2 years old is rushed to the ER due to cyanosis precipitated by crying. Her mother observed that after playing she gets tired. She was diagnosed with Tetralogy of Fallot.

31. The goal of nursing care fro Agata is to:
a. Prevent infection
b. Promote normal growth and development

c. Decrease hypoxic spells
d. Hydrate adequately

The correct answer is letter C. Though letter B would be a good answer too, this goal is too vague and not specific. Nursing interventions will not solely promote normal G&D unless he will undergo surgical repair. So decreasing Hypoxic Spells is more SMART. (alam nyo na kung ano yun! Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic and time bounded). Letter A and D are inappropriate.
REVIEW! REVIEW! REVIEW!
Tetralogy of Fallot is a cyanotic Congenital Heart disease. Kaya sa tinawag na Tetralogy cause it has 4 anomalies;
1. VSD- ventricular septal defect
2. Pulmunary Stenosis
3. Over-riding of the Aorta- the aorta overrides both ventricles
4. Right ventricular hypertrophy

We have 14 congenital heart defects. 8 acyanotic and 6 cyanoyic.
8 Acyanotice includes: ASD, VSD, PDA, endocardial cushion defect, pulmonary stenosis, doupling of the aorta, Aortic stenosis and Coarctation of the Aorta
6 Cyanotic includes: Tetralogy of fallot, Total anomalous pulmonary artery, Transposition of the great arteries, Truncus arteriousus, Hypoplastic Left heart syndrome.
(Acyanotic causes L->R shunting while cyanotic cause R->L shunting. Para madaling matandaan lahat ng may “T” eh cyanotic OK?

32. The immediate nursing intervention for cyanosis of Agata is:
a. Call up the pediatrician

b. Place her in knee chest position
c. Administer oxygen inhalation
d. Transfer her to the PICU

The immediate intervention would be to place her on knee-chest or “squatting” position because it traps blood into the lower extremities. Though also letter C would be a good choice but the question is asking for “Immediate” so letter B is more appropriate. Letter A and D are incorrect because its normal for a child who have ToF to have hypoxic or “tets” spells so there is no need to transfer her to the NICU or to alert the Pediatrician.

33. Agata was scheduled for a palliative surgery, which creates anastomosis of the subclavian artery to the pulmonary artery. This procedure is:
a. Waterston-Cooley
b. Raskkind Procedure
c. Coronary artery bypass

d. Blalock-Taussig

Correct answer is Blalock-Taussig procedure its just a temporary or palliative surgery which creates a shunt between the aorta and pulmonary artery (oist parang ductus arteriosus) so that the blood can leave the aorta and enter the pulmonary artery and thus oxygenating the lungs and return to the left side of the heart, then to the aorta then to the body. This procedure also makes use of the subclavian vein so pulse is not palpable at the right arm.
The full repair for ToF is called the Brock procedure. Raskkind is a palliative surgery for TOGA.

34. Which of the following is not an indicator that Agata experiences separation anxiety brought about her hospitalization?

a. Friendly with the nurse
b. Prolonged loud crying, consoled only by mother
c. Occasional temper tantrums and always says NO
d. Repeatedly verbalizes desire to go home

Because toddlers views hospitalization is abandonment, separation anxiety is common. Its has 3 phases: PDD (parang c puff daddy LOL)
1. Protest 2. despair 3. detachment (or denial). Choices B, C, D are usually seen in a child with separation anxiety (usually in the protest stage).
REVIEW:
Separation anxiety begin at: 9 months
Peaks: 18 months

35. When Agata was brought to the OR, her parents where crying. What would be the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?
a. Infective family coping r/t situational crisis
b. Anxiety r/t powerlessness
c. Fear r/t uncertain prognosis

d. Anticipatory grieving r/t gravity of child’s physical status

In this item letter A and be are inappropriate response so remove them. The possible answers are C and D. Fear defined as the perceived threat (real or imagined) that is consciously recognized as danger (NANDA) is applicable in the situation but its defining characteristics are not applicable. Crying per se can not be a subjective cue to signify fear, and most of the symptoms of fear in NANDA are physiological. Anticipatory grieving on the other hand are intellectual and EMOTIONAL responses based on a potential loss. And remember that procedures like this cannot assure total recovery. So letter D is a more appropriate Nursing diagnosis.
NOTE: GANATO NA PO ANG PATTERN NG NLE, LAGING MAY HALONG THERAPUETIC COMMUNICATION AT NURSING DIAGNOSIS.

36. Which of the following respiratory condition is always considered a medical emergency?
a. Laryngeotracheobronchitis (LTB)

b. Epiglottitis
c. Asthma
d. Cystic Fibrosis

Correct answer is letter B, because acute and sever inflammation of the epiglottis can cause life threatening airway obstruction, that is why its always treated as a medical emergency. NSG intervention : Prepare tracheostomy set at bed side.
LTB, can also cause airway obstruction but its not an emergency. Asthma is also not an emergency (ung status asthmaticus ang kaylangan ng prompt treatment). CF is a chronic disease, so its not a medical emergency.
REVIEW: Medical emergency of GI: peritonitis

37. Which of the following statements by the family of a child with asthma indicates a need for additional teaching?
a. “We need to identify what things triggers his attacks”
b. “He is to use bronchodilator inhaler before steroid inhaler”

c. “We’ll make sure he avoids exercise to prevent asthma attacks”

d. “he should increase his fluid intake regularly to thin secretions”

Asthmatic children don’t have to avoid exercise. They can participate on physical activities as tolerated. Using a bronchodilator before administering steroids is correct because steroids are just anti-inflammatory and they don’t have effects on the dilation of the bronchioles. OF course letters A and B are obviously correct.

38. Which of the following would require careful monitoring in the child with ADHD who is receiving Methylphenidate (Ritalin)?
a. Dental health
b. Mouth dryness

c. Height and weight
d. Excessive appetite

Dental problems are more likely to occur in children under going TCA therapy. Mouth dryness is a expected side effects of Ritalin since it activates the SNS. Also loss of appetite is more likely to happen, not increase in appetite. The correct answer is letter C, because Ritalin can affect the child’s G&D. Intervention: medication “holidays or vacation”. (This means na.. during weekends or holidays or school vacations, where the child wont be in school, the drug can be withheld.)

Situation 6 Laura is assigned as the Team Leader during the immunization day at the RHU

39. What program for the DOH is launched at 1976 in cooperation with WHO and UNICEF to reduce morbidity and mortality among infants caused by immunizable disease?
a. Patak day
b. Immunization day on Wednesday

c. Expanded program on immunization

d. Bakuna ng kabtaan

SUS me! Dapat pa bang I-rationalize? Ang di nakakuha ng tamang sagot… hala… JOKE.. hehehe

40. One important principle of the immunization program is based on?
a. Statistical occurrence

b. Epidemiologic situation

c. Cold chain management
d. Surveillance study

Letters A, C and D are not included in the principles of EPI.
The principle of EPI are the following:
1. Its is based on epidemiological situation
2. Mass approach utilization- the whole community is to be protected rather than the individual
3. Immunization is a basic health service, and should be provided by the RHU

41. The main element of immunization program is one of the following?
a. Information, education and communication
b. Assessment and evaluation of the program
c. Research studies

d. Target setting

Correct answer is D.
The following are the elements of EPI:
• Target seting
• Cold chain logistic management
• Information, education and communication
• Assessment and evaluation of the program’s over all performance
• Surveillance, studies and research

42. What does herd immunity means?

a. Interruption of transmission
b. All to be vaccinated
c. Selected group for vaccination
d. Shorter incubation

43. Measles vaccine can be given simultaneously. What is the combined vaccine to be given to children starting at 15 months?
a. MCG

b. MMR
c. BCG
d. BBR

MMR or Measles, Mumps, Rubella is a vaccine furnished in one vial and is routinely given in one injection (Sub-Q). It can be given at 15 months but can also be given as early as 12th month.

Situation 7: Braguda brought her 5-month old daughter in the nearest RHU because her baby sleeps most of the time, with decreased appetite, has colds and fever for more than a week. The physician diagnosed pneumonia.

44. Based on this data given by Braguda, you can classify Braguda’s daughter to have:
a. Pneumonia: cough and colds

b. Severe pneumonia
c. Very severe pneumonia
d. Pneumonia moderate

For a child aging 2months up to 5 years old can be classified to have sever pneumonia when he have any of the following danger signs:
• Not able to drink
• Convulsions
• Abnormally sleepy or difficult to wake
• Stridor in calm child or
• Severe under-nutrition

45. For a 3-month old child to be classified to have Pneumonia (not severe), you would expect to find RR of:
a. 60 bpm
b. 40 bpm
c. 70 bpm

d. 50 pbm

Correct answer is letter D. A child can be classified to have Pneumonia (not severe) if:
• the young infant is less than 2 months- 60 bpm or more
• if the child is 2 months up to less than 12 months- 50 bpm or more
• if the child is 12 months to 4 y/o- 40 bpm or more

46. You asked Braguda if her baby received all vaccines under EPI. What legal basis is used in implementing the UN’s goal on Universal Child Immunization?
a. PD no. 996

b. PD no. 6
c. PD no. 46
d. RA 9173

Correct answer is letter B. Presidential Proclamation no. 6 (April 3, 1986) is the “Implementing a United Nations goal on Universal Child Immunization by 1990”. PD 996 (September 16, 1976) is “providing for compulsory basic immunization for infants and children below 8 years of age. PD no. 46 (September 16, 1992) is the “Reaffirming the commitment of the Philippines to the universal Child and Mother goal of the World Health Assembly. RA 9173 is of course the “Nursing act of 2002”

47. Braguda asks you about Vitamin A supplementation. You responded that giving Vitamin A starts when the infant reaches 6 months and the first dose is”
a. 200,000 “IU”

b. 100,000 “IU”
c. 500,000 “IU”
d. 10,000 “IU”

An infant aging 6-11 months will be given Vitamin supplementation of 100, 000 IU and for Preschoolers ages 12-83 months 200,000 “IU” will be given.

48. As part of CARI program, assessment of the child is your main responsibility. You could ask the following question to the mother except:
a. “How old is the child?”
b. “IS the child coughing? For how long?”

c. “Did the child have chest indrawing?”
d. “Did the child have fever? For how long?”

The CARI program of the DOH includes the “ASK” and “LOOK, LISTEN” as part of the assessment of the child who has suspected Pneumonia. Choices A, B and D are included in the “ASK” assessment while Chest indrawings is included in the “LOOK, LISTEN” and should not be asked to the mother.

49. A newborn’s failure to pass meconium within 24 hours after birth may indicate which of the following?

a. Aganglionic Mega colon
b. Celiac disease
c. Intussusception
d. Abdominal wall defect

Failure to pass meconium of Newborn during the first 24 hours of life may indicate Hirschsprung disease or Congenital Aganglionic Megacolon, an anomaly resulting in mechanical obstruction due to inadequate motility in an intestinal segment. B, C, and D are not associated in the failure to pass meconium of the newborn.

50. The nurse understands that a good snack for a 2 year old with a diagnosis of acute asthma would be:
a. Grapes

b. Apple slices
c. A glass of milk
d. A glass of cola

Correct answer is B, apple slices. Grapes is in appropriate because of its “balat” that can cause choking. A glass of milk is not a good snack because it’s the most common cause of Iron-deficiency anemia in children (milk contains few iron), A glass of cola is also not appropriate cause it contains complex sugar. (walang kinalaman ang asthma dahil ala naman itong diatery restricted foods na nasa choices.)

51. Which of the following immunizations would the nurse expect to administer to a child who is HIV (+) and severely immunocomromised?
a. Varicella
b. Rotavirus
c. MMR

d. IPV

IPV or Inactivated polio vaccine does not contain live micro organisms which can be harmful to an immunocompromised child. Unlike OPV, IPV is administered via IM route.

52. When assessing a newborn for developmental dysplasia of the hip, the nurse would expect to assess which of the following/
a. Symmetrical gluteal folds
b. Trendelemburg sign

c. Ortolani’s sign
d. Characteristic limp

Correct answer is Ortolani’s sign; it is the abnormal clicking sound when the hips are abducted. The sound is produced when the femoral head enters the acetabulum. Letter A is wrong because its should be “asymmetrical gluteal fold”. Letter B and C are not applicable for newborns because they are seen in older children.

53. While assessing a male neonate whose mother desires him to be circumcised, the nurse observes that the neonate’s urinary meatus appears to be located on the ventral surface of the penis. The physician is notified because the nurse would suspect which of the following?
a. Phimosis
b. Hydrocele
c. Epispadias

d. Hypospadias

Hypospadias is a c condition in which the urethral opening is located below the glans penis or anywhere along the ventral surface of the penile shaft. Epispadias, the urethral meatus is located at the dorsal surface of the penile shaft. (Para di ka malilto, I-alphabetesize mo Dorsal, (Above) eh mauuna sa Ventral (Below) , Epis mauuna sa Hypo.)

54. When teaching a group of parents about seat belt use, when would the nurse state that the child be safely restrained in a regular automobile seatbelt?
a. 30 lb and 30 in
b. 35 lb and 3 y/o

c. 40 lb and 40 in

d. 60 lb and 6 y/o

Basta tandaan ang rule of 4! 4 years old, 40 lbs and 40 in.

55. When assessing a newborn with cleft lip, the nurse would be alert which of the following will most likely be compromised?

a. Sucking ability

b. Respiratory status
c. Locomotion
d. GI function

Because of the defect, the child will be unable to form the mouth adequately arounf the nipple thereby requiring special devices to allow feeding and sucking gratification. Respiratory status may be compromised when the child is fed improperly or during post op period.
REVIEW!
Repair of cleft lip-cheiloplasty-should be done within 1-3 months- to save sucking reflex- position post-op side lying
Repair of cleft palate- Uranoplasty- should be done within 4-6 months-to preserve speech- position post-op is prone.

56. For a child with recurring nephritic syndrome, which of the following areas of potential disturbances should be a prime consideration when planning ongoing nursing care?
a. Muscle coordination
b. Sexual maturation
c. Intellectual development

d. Body image

Because of edema, associated with nephroitic syndrome, potential self concept and body image disturbance related to changes in appearance and social isolation should be considered.

HEY! NARARAMDAMAN KO NA LALABAS ULIT ANG MGA SAKIT RELATED SA NEW BORN SCREENING KAYA ARALIN NA ITO. I WILL POST A SIMPLE LECTURE DITO. (LATER…. Kasi tamad ako,,, hehehe)

57. An inborn error of metabolism that causes premature destruction of RBC?

a. G6PD
b. Hemocystinuria
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Celiac Disease

G6PD is the premature destruction of RBC when the blood is exposed to antioxidants, ASA (ano un? Aspirin), legumes and flava beans.

58. Which of the following would be a diagnostic test for Phenylketonuria which uses fresh urine mixed with ferric chloride?
a. Guthrie Test

b. Phenestix test
c. Beutler’s test
d. Coomb’s test

Phenestix test is a diagnostic test which uses a fresh urine sample (diapers) and mixed with ferric chloride. If positive, there will be a presence of green spots at the diapers. Guthrie test is another test for PKU and is the one that mostly used. The specimen used is the blood and it tests if CHON is converted to amino acid.

59. Dietary restriction in a child who has Hemocystenuria will include which of the following amino acid?
a. Lysine

b. Methionine

c. Isolensine tryptophase
d. Valine

Hemocystenuria is the elevated excretion of the amino acid hemocystiene, and there is inability to convert the amino acid methionine or cystiene. So dietary restriction of this amino acids is advised. This disease can lead to mental retardation.

60. A milk formula that you can suggest for a child with Galactosemia:
a. Lofenalac
b. Lactum

c. Neutramigen

d. Sustagen

Neutramigen is suggested for a child with Galactosemia. Lofenalac is suggested for a child with PKU. Sustagen is for Susy and Geno, Lactum.. lactum.. inom ka ng inom!

89 Item Psychiatric Nursing Exam II : Substance Abuse, Eating disorders and Impulse control disorders

89 Item Psychiatric Nursing Exam II : Substance Abuse, Eating disorders and Impulse control disorders Correct Answers and Rationale

1. An unemployed woman, age 24, seeks help because she feels depressed and abandoned and doesn't know what to do with her life. She says she has quit her last five jobs because her coworkers didn't like her and didn't train her adequately. Last week, her boyfriend broke up with her after she drove his car into a tree after an argument. The client's initial diagnosis is borderline personality disorder. Which nursing observations support this diagnosis?

A. Flat affect, social withdrawal, and unusual dress
B. Suspiciousness, hypervigilance, and emotional coldness

C. Lack of self-esteem, strong dependency needs, and impulsive behavior
D. Insensitivity to others, sexual acting out, and violence

Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by lack of self-esteem, strong dependency needs, and impulsive behavior. Instability in interpersonal relationships, mood, and poor self-image also is common. Typically, the client can't tolerate being alone and expresses feelings of emptiness or boredom. Flat affect, social withdrawal, and unusual dress are characteristic of schizoid personality disorder. Suspiciousness, hypervigilance, and emotional coldness are seen in paranoid personality disorders. In antisocial personality disorder, clients are usually insensitive to others and act out sexually; they may also be violent

2.In a toddler, which of the following injuries is most likely the result of child abuse?

A. A hematoma on the occipital region of the head
B. A 1-inch forehead laceration

C. Several small, dime-sized circular burns on the child's back
D. A small isolated bruise on the right lower extremity

Rationale: Small circular burns on a child's back are no accident and may be from cigarettes. Toddlers are injury prone because of their developmental stage, and falls are frequent because of their unsteady gait; head injuries aren't uncommon. A small area of ecchymosis isn't suspicious in this age-group.

3. A client is admitted to the emergency department after being found unconscious. Her blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg. She is 5′ 4" (1.6 m) tall, weighs 79 lb (35.8 kg), and appears dehydrated and emaciated. After regaining consciousness, she reports that she has had trouble eating lately and can't remember what she ate in the last 24 hours. She also states that she has had amenorrhea for the past year. She is convinced she is fat and refuses food. The nurse suspects that she has:

A. bulimia nervosa.

B. anorexia nervosa.
C. depression.
D. schizophrenia.

Rationale: Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by self-imposed starvation with subsequent emaciation, nutritional deficiencies, and atrophic and metabolic changes. Typically, the client is hypotensive and dehydrated. Depending on the severity of the disorder, anorexic clients are at risk for circulatory collapse (indicated by hypotension), dehydration, and death. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting. Although depression may be accompanied by weight loss, it isn't characterized by a body image disturbance or the intense fear of obesity seen in anorexia nervosa. Schizophrenia may cause bizarre eating patterns, but it rarely causes the full syndrome of anorexia nervosa.

4. A 15-year-old girl with anorexia has been admitted to a mental health unit. She refuses to eat. Which of the following statements is the best response from the nurse?

A. "You don't have to eat. It's your choice."

B. "I hope you'll eat your food by mouth. Tube feedings and I.V. lines can be uncomfortable."
C. "Why do you think you're fat? You're underweight. Here — look in the mirror."
D. "You really look terrible at this weight. I hope you'll eat."

Rationale: Clients with anorexia can refuse food to the point of cardiac damage. Tube feedings and I.V. infusions are ordered to prevent such damage. The nurse is informing her of her treatment options. Option A doesn't tell the client about the consequences of choosing not to eat. Telling clients that they are too thin won't change their self-image.

5. A client with a history of substance abuse has been attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings regularly in the psychiatric unit. One afternoon, the client tells the nurse, "I'm not going to those meetings anymore. I'm not like the rest of those people. I'm not a drunk. "What is the most appropriate response?

A. "If you aren't an alcoholic, why do you keep drinking and ending up in the hospital?"
B. "It's your decision. If you don't want to go, you don't have to."

C. "You seem upset about the meetings."
D. "You have to go to the meetings. It's part of your treatment plan."

Rationale: The substance abuser uses the substance to cope with feelings and may deny the abuse. Asking if the client is upset about the meetings encourages the client to identify and deal with feelings instead of covering them up. Arguing with the client about the substance abuse (option A) or insisting that the client attend the meetings (option D) wouldn't help the client identify resistance to treatment. Option B isn't therapeutic behavior because it plays down the importance of attending meetings.

6. A client is admitted to the inpatient adolescent unit after being arrested for attempting to sell cocaine to an undercover police officer. The nurse plans to write a behavioral contract. To best promote compliance, the contract should be written:

A. abstractly.
B. by the client alone.

C. jointly by the client and nurse.
D. jointly by the physician and nurse.

Rationale: A contract written jointly by the client and nurse most successfully promotes cooperation and consistent behavior. The most effective contract — and the type least likely to allow for manipulation and misinterpretation — states the behavioral terms as concretely as possible. A contract written solely by the client may not be agreeable to staff members; one written by the physician and nurse may not be agreeable to the client.

7. During which phase of alcoholism is loss of control and physiologic dependence evident?

A. Prealcoholic phase
B. Early alcoholic phase

C. Crucial phase

D. Chronic phase

Rationale: The crucial phase is marked by physical dependence. The prealcoholic phase is characterized by drinking to medicate feelings and for relief from stress. The early phase is characterized by sneaking drinks, blackouts, rapidly gulping drinks, and preoccupation with alcohol. The chronic phase is characterized by emotional and physical deterioration.

8. Which of the following is important when restraining a violent client?

A. Have three staff members present, one for each side of the body and one for the head.
B. Always tie restraints to side rails.

C. Have an organized, efficient team approach after the decision is made to restrain the client.

D. Secure restraints to the gurney with knots to prevent escape.

Rationale: Emergency department personnel should use an organized, team approach when restraining violent clients so that no one is injured in the process. The leader, located at the client's head, should take charge; four staff members are required to hold and restrain the limbs. For safety reasons, restraints should be fastened to the bed frame instead of the side rails. For quick release, loops should be used instead of knots

9. A client who's actively hallucinating is brought to the hospital by friends. They say that the client used either lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) or angel dust (phencyclidine [PCP]) at a concert. Which of the following common assessment findings indicates that the client may have ingested PCP?

A. Dilated pupils

B. Nystagmus
C. Paranoia
D. Altered mood

Rationale: Phencyclidine is an anesthetic with severe psychological effects. It blocks the reuptake of dopamine and directly affects the midbrain and thalamus. Nystagmus and ataxia are common physical findings of PCP use. Dilated pupils are evidence of LSD ingestion. Paranoia and altered mood occur with both PCP and LSD ingestion.

10. A severely dehydrated teenager admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia undergoes evaluation for electrolyte disturbances. Her history includes anorexia nervosa and a 20-lb (9.1-kg) weight loss in the last month. She is 5′ 7" (1.7 m) tall and weighs 80 lb (36.3 kg). Which nursing intervention takes highest priority?

A. Initiating caloric and nutritional therapy as ordered

B. Instituting behavioral modification therapy as ordered
C. Addressing the client's low self-esteem
D. Regularly monitoring vital signs and weight

Rationale: The client with anorexia nervosa is at risk for death from self-starvation. Therefore, initiating caloric and nutritional therapy takes highest priority. Behavioral modification (in which client privileges depend on weight gain) and psychoanalysis (which addresses the client's low self-esteem, guilt, anxiety, and feelings of hopelessness and depression) are important aspects of care but are secondary to stabilizing the client's physical condition. Monitoring vital signs and weight is important in evaluating nutritional therapy but doesn't take precedence over providing adequate caloric intake to ensure survival

11. A client tells the nurse that he is having suicidal thoughts every day. In conferring with the treatment team, the nurse should make which of the following recommendations?

A. A no-suicide contract
B. Weekly outpatient therapy
C. A second psychiatric opinion

D. Intensive inpatient treatment

Rationale: Inpatient care is the best intervention for a client who is thinking about suicide every day. Implementing a no-suicide contract is an important strategy, but this client requires additional care. Weekly therapy wouldn't provide the intensity of care that this case warrants. Obtaining a second opinion would take time; this client requires immediate intervention.

12. Which of the following etiologic factors predispose a client to Tourette syndrome?

A. No known etiology

B. Abnormalities in brain neurotransmitters, structural changes in basal ganglia and caudate nucleus, and genetics
C. Abnormalities in the structure and function of the ventricles
D. Environmental factors and birth-related trauma

Rationale: The etiology of Tourette syndrome includes genetics, abnormalities in neurotransmission, and structural changes in the basal ganglia and caudate nucleus. The ventricles in the brain, environmental factors, and birth trauma aren't involved.

13. A client is admitted for detoxification after a cocaine overdose. The client tells the nurse that he frequently uses cocaine but he can control his use if he chooses. Which coping mechanism is he using?

A. Withdrawal
B. Logical thinking
C. Repression

D. Denial

Rationale: Denial is an unconscious defense mechanism in which emotional conflict and anxiety are avoided by refusing to acknowledge feelings, desires, impulses, or external facts that are consciously intolerable. Withdrawal is a common response to stress, characterized by apathy. Logical thinking IS the ability to think rationally and make responsible decisions, which would lead the client to admitting the problem and seeking help. Repression is suppressing past events from the consciousness because of guilty association.

14. An 16-year-old boy is admitted to the facility after acting out his aggressions inappropriately at school. Predisposing factors to the expression of aggression include:

A. violence on television.

B. passive parents.
C. an internal locus of control.
D. a single-parent family

Rationale: Violence on television has been correlated with an increase in aggressive behavior. Passive parents contribute to acting-out behaviors but not specifically to violence. An internal locus of control leads to a positive sense of self-esteem and isn't related to violence or aggression. There is no direct correlation between single-parent families and violence.

15. A client is brought to the emergency department after being beaten by her husband, a prominent attorney. The nurse caring for this client understands that:

A. open boundaries are common in violent families.
B. violence usually results from a power struggle.

C. domestic violence and abuse span all socioeconomic classes.
D. violent behavior is a genetic trait passed from one generation to the next.

Rationale: Domestic violence and abuse affect all socioeconomic classes. Closed boundaries and an imbalance of power, with one member having control over the others, are common in violent families. Although violent behavior may be passed from one generation to the next, it's a learned behavior, not a genetic trait.

16. On discharge after treatment for alcoholism, a client plans to take disulfiram (Antabuse) as prescribed. When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse emphasizes the need to:

A. avoid all products containing alcohol.
B. adhere to concomitant vitamin B therapy.
C. return for monthly blood drug level monitoring.
D. limit alcohol consumption to a moderate level.

Rationale: To avoid severe adverse effects, the client taking disulfiram must strictly avoid alcohol and all products that contain alcohol. Vitamin B therapy and blood monitoring aren't necessary during disulfiram therapy.

17. During a private conversation, a client with borderline personality disorder asks the nurse to keep his secret and then displays multiple, self-inflicted, superficial lacerations on the forearms. What is the nurse's best response?

A. "That's it! You're on suicide precautions."
B. "I'm going to tell your physician. Do you want to tell me why you did that?"
C. "Tell me what type of instrument you used. I'm concerned about infection."

D. "The team needs to know when something important occurs in treatment. I need to tell the others, but let's talk about it first."

Rationale: This response informs the client of the nurse's planned actions and allows time to discuss the client's actions. Options A and B put the client on the defensive and may lead to a power struggle. Option C ignores the psychological implications of the client's actions.

18. The nurse is providing care for a client undergoing opiate withdrawal. Opiate withdrawal causes severe physical discomfort and can be life-threatening. To minimize these effects, opiate users are commonly detoxified with:

A. barbiturates.
B. amphetamines.

C. methadone.

D. benzodiazepines.

Rationale: Methadone is used to detoxify opiate users because it binds with opioid receptors at many sites in the central nervous system but doesn't have the same deleterious effects as other opiates, such as cocaine, heroin, and morphine. Barbiturates, amphetamines, and benzodiazepines are highly addictive and would require detoxification treatment.

19. The nurse is caring for a client who she believes has been abusing opiates. Assessment findings in a client abusing opiates such as morphine include:

A. dilated pupils and slurred speech.
B. rapid speech and agitation.
C. dilated pupils and agitation.

D. euphoria and constricted pupils.

Rationale: Assessment findings in a client abusing opiates include agitation, slurred speech, euphoria, and constricted pupils.

20. Which of the following signs should the nurse expect in a client with known amphetamine overdose?

A. Hypotension

B. Tachycardia

C. Hot, dry skin
D. Constricted pupils

Rationale: Amphetamines are central nervous system stimulants. They cause sympathetic stimulation, including hypertension, tachycardia, vasoconstriction, and hyperthermia. Hot, dry skin is seen with anticholinergic agents such as jimsonweed. Pupils will be dilated, not constricted.

21. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of alcohol intoxication and suspected alcohol dependence. Other assessment findings include an enlarged liver, jaundice, lethargy, and rambling, incoherent speech. No other information about the client is available. After the nurse completes the initial assessment, what is the first priority?

A. Instituting seizure precautions, obtaining frequent vital signs, and recording fluid intake and output
B. Checking the client's medical records for health history information
C. Attempting to contact the client's family to obtain more information about the client
D. Restricting fluids and leaving the client alone to "sleep off" the episode

Rationale: A nurse who lacks adequate information to determine which level of care a client requires must take all possible precautions to ensure the client's physical safety and prevent complications. To do otherwise could place the client at risk for potential complications. After taking all possible precautions, the nurse can begin seeking health history information and, as needed, modify the plan of care. Fluids are typically increased unless contraindicated by a preexisting medical condition.

22. Which nursing action is best when trying to diffuse a client's impending violent behavior?

A. Helping the client identify and express feelings of anxiety and anger
B. Involving the client in a quiet activity to divert attention
C. Leaving the client alone until the client can talk about feelings
D. Placing the client in seclusion

Rationale: In many instances, the nurse can diffuse impending violence by helping the client identify and express feelings of anger and anxiety. Such statements as "What happened to get you this angry?" may help the client verbalize feelings rather than act on them. Close interaction with the client in a quiet activity may place the nurse at risk for injury should the client suddenly become violent. An agitated and potentially violent client shouldn't be left alone or unsupervised because the danger of the client acting out is too great. The client should be placed in seclusion only if other interventions fail or the client requests this. Unlocked seclusion can be helpful for some clients because it reduces environmental stimulation and provides a feeling of security.

23. The nurse is working with a client who abuses alcohol. Which of the following facts should the nurse communicate to the client?

A. Abstinence is the basis for successful treatment.
B. Attendance at Alcoholics Anonymous meetings every day will cure alcoholism.
C. For treatment to be successful, family members must participate.
D. An occasional social drink is acceptable behavior for the alcoholic

Rationale: The foundation of any treatment for alcoholism is abstinence. Attendance at Alcoholics Anonymous is helpful to some individuals to maintain strict abstinence. Participation in treatment by the family is beneficial to both the client and the family but isn't essential. Abstinence requires refraining from social drinking.

24. Which psychosocial influence has been causally related to the development of aggressive behavior and conduct disorder?

A. An overbearing mother

B. Rejection by peers
C. A history of schizophrenia in the family
D. Low socioeconomic status

Rationale: Studies indicate that children who are rejected by their peers are more likely to behave aggressively. Aggression and conduct disorder are represented in all socioeconomic groups. Schizophrenia and an overbearing mother haven't been associated with aggression or conduct disorder

25. In group therapy, a client who has used I.V. heroin every day for the past 14 years says, "I don't have a drug problem. I can quit whenever I want. I've done it before." Which defense mechanism is the client using?

A. Denial
B. Obsession
C. Compensation
D. Rationalization

Rationale: A client who states that he or she doesn't have a drug problem and can quit using drugs at any time — despite evidence to the contrary — is denying the drug addiction. Obsession isn't a defense mechanism. In compensation, the client emphasizes positive attributes to compensate for negative ones. In rationalization, the client justifies behaviors by faulty logic.

26. A client with a history of cocaine addiction is admitted to the coronary care unit for evaluation of substernal chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a 1-mm ST-segment elevation the anteroseptal leads and T-wave inversion in leads V3 to V5. Considering the client's history of drug abuse, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:

A. lidocaine (Xylocaine).
B. procainamide (Pronestyl).

C. nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV).

D. epinephrine.

Rationale: The elevated ST segments in this client's ECG indicate myocardial ischemia. To reverse this problem, the physician is most likely to prescribe an infusion of nitroglycerin to dilate the coronary arteries. Lidocaine and procainamide are cardiac drugs that may be indicated for this client at some point but aren't used for coronary artery dilation. If a cocaine user experiences ventricular fibrillation or asystole, the physician may prescribe epinephrine. However, this drug must be used with caution because cocaine may potentiate its adrenergic effects.

27. A 15-year-old client is brought to the clinic by her mother. Her mother expresses concern about her daughter's weight loss and constant dieting. The nurse conducts a health history interview. Which of the following comments indicates that the client may be suffering from anorexia nervosa?

A. "I like the way I look. I just need to keep my weight down because I'm a cheerleader."
B. "I don't like the food my mother cooks. I eat plenty of fast food when I'm out with my friends."

C. "I just can't seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I'm so fat compared to other girls."
D. "I do diet around my periods; otherwise, I just get so bloated."

Rationale: Low self-esteem is the highest risk factor for anorexia nervosa. Constant dieting to get down to a "desirable weight" is characteristic of the disorder. Feeling inadequate when compared to peers indicates poor self-esteem. Most clients with anorexia nervosa don't like the way they look, and their self-perception may be distorted. A girl with cachexia may perceive herself to be overweight when she looks in the mirror. Preferring fast food over healthy food is common in this age-group. Because of the absence of body fat necessary for proper hormone production, amenorrhea is common in a client with anorexia nervosa.

28. Which is the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?

A. fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. fluvoxamine (Luvox)

C. haloperidol (Haldol)
D. paroxetine (Paxil)

Rationale: Haloperidol is the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome. Prozac, Luvox, and Paxil are antidepressants and aren't used to treat Tourette syndrome

29. The client tells the nurse he was involved in a car accident while he was intoxicated. What would be the most therapeutic response from the nurse?

A. "Why didn't you get someone else to drive you?"

B. "Tell me how you feel about the accident."

C. "You should know better than to drink and drive."
D. "I recommend that you attend an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting."

Rationale: An open-ended statement or question is the most therapeutic response. It encourages the widest range of client responses, makes the client an active participant in the conversation, and shows the client that the nurse is interested in his feelings. Asking the client why he drove while intoxicated can make him feel defensive and intimidated. A judgmental approach isn't therapeutic. By giving advice, the nurse suggests that the client isn't capable of making decisions, thus fostering dependency.

30. A client voluntarily admits himself to the substance abuse unit. He confesses that he drinks 1 qt or more of vodka each day and uses cocaine occasionally. Later that afternoon, he begins to show signs of alcohol withdrawal. What are some early signs of this condition?

A. Vomiting, diarrhea, and bradycardia
B. Dehydration, temperature above 101° F (38.3° C), and pruritus
C. Hypertension, diaphoresis, and seizures

D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness

Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal syndrome includes alcohol withdrawal, alcoholic hallucinosis, and alcohol withdrawal delirium (formerly delirium tremens). Signs of alcohol withdrawal include diaphoresis, tremors, nervousness, nausea, vomiting, malaise, increased blood pressure and pulse rate, sleep disturbance, and irritability. Although diarrhea may be an early sign of alcohol withdrawal, tachycardia — not bradycardia — is associated with alcohol withdrawal. Dehydration and an elevated temperature may be expected, but a temperature above 101° F indicates an infection rather than alcohol withdrawal. Pruritus rarely occurs in alcohol withdrawal. If withdrawal symptoms remain untreated, seizures may arise later.

31. When monitoring a client recently admitted for treatment of cocaine addiction, the nurse notes sudden increases in the arterial blood pressure and heart rate. To correct these problems, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:

A. norepinephrine (Levophed) and lidocaine (Xylocaine).
B. nifedipine (Procardia) and lidocaine.
C. nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV) and esmolol (Brevibloc).

D. nifedipine and esmolol

Rationale: This client requires a vasodilator, such as nifedipine, to treat hypertension, and a beta-adrenergic blocker, such as esmolol, to reduce the heart rate. Lidocaine, an antiarrhythmic, isn't indicated because the client doesn't have an arrhythmia. Although nitroglycerin may be used to treat coronary vasospasm, it isn't the drug of choice in hypertension.

32. A client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is upset about going through detoxification. Which of the following goals is a priority?

A. The client will commit to a drug-free lifestyle.

B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe.

C. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily.
D. The client will make a personal inventory of strengths

Rationale: The priority goal in alcohol withdrawal is maintaining the client's safety. Committing to a drug-free lifestyle, drinking plenty of fluids, and identifying personal strengths are important goals, but ensuring the client's safety is the nurse's top priority.

33. A client is admitted to a psychiatric facility by court order for evaluation for antisocial personality disorder. This client has a long history of initiating fights and abusing animals and recently was arrested for setting a neighbor's dog on fire. When evaluating this client for the potential for violence, the nurse should assess for which behavioral clues?

A. A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring
B. Depression and physical withdrawal
C. Silence and noncompliance
D. Hypervigilance and talk of past violent acts

Rationale: Behavioral clues that suggest the potential for violence include a rigid posture, restlessness, glaring, a change in usual behavior, clenched hands, overtly aggressive actions, physical withdrawal, noncompliance, overreaction, hostile threats, recent alcohol ingestion or drug use, talk of past violent acts, inability to express feelings, repetitive demands and complaints, argumentativeness, profanity, disorientation, inability to focus attention, hallucinations or delusions, paranoid ideas or suspicions, and somatic complaints. Violent clients rarely exhibit depression, silence, or hypervigilance.

34. A client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas to stop. During an interview with the nurse, which statement by the client most strongly supports a diagnosis of psychoactive substance abuse?

A. "I'm not addicted to alcohol. In fact, I can drink more than I used to without being affected."
B. "I only spend half of my paycheck at the bar."
C. "I just drink to relax after work."

D. "I know I've been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me."

Rationale: According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition, diagnostic criteria for psychoactive substance abuse include a maladaptive pattern of such use, indicated either by continued use despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent social, occupational, psychological, or physical problem caused or exacerbated by substance abuse or recurrent use in dangerous situations (for example, while driving). For this client, psychoactive substance dependence must be ruled out; criteria for this disorder include a need for increasing amounts of the substance to achieve intoxication (option A), increased time and money spent on the substance (option B), inability to fulfill role obligations (option C), and typical withdrawal symptoms.

35. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Initial nursing assessment reveals that the client's wrists are scratched from a recent suicide attempt. Based on this finding, the nurse should formulate a nursing diagnosis of:

A. Ineffective individual coping related to feelings of guilt.
B. Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of loss of control.

C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts.
D. Risk for violence: Directed toward others related to verbal threats.

Rationale: The predominant behavioral characteristic of the client with borderline personality disorder is impulsiveness, especially of a physically self-destructive sort. The observation that the client has scratched wrists doesn't substantiate the other options.

36. A client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly complains of palpitations. The nurse notes a rise in the client's arterial blood pressure and a heart rate of 144 beats/minute. On further questioning, the client admits to having used cocaine recently after previously denying use of the drug. The nurse concludes that the client is at high risk for which complication of cocaine use?

A. Coronary artery spasm
B. Bradyarrhythmias
C. Neurobehavioral deficits
D. Panic disorder

Rationale: Cocaine use may cause such cardiac complications as coronary artery spasm, myocardial infarction, dilated cardiomyopathy, acute heart failure, endocarditis, and sudden death. Cocaine blocks reuptake of norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine, causing an excess of these neurotransmitters at postsynaptic receptor sites. Consequently, the drug is more likely to cause tachyarrhythmias than bradyarrhythmias. Although neurobehavioral deficits are common in neonates born to cocaine users, they are rare in adults. As craving for the drug increases, a person who's addicted to cocaine typically experiences euphoria followed by depression, not panic disorder.

37. A client is being admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. As part of the intake interview, the nurse asks him when he had his last alcoholic drink. He says that he had his last drink 6 hours before admission. Based on this response, the nurse should expect early withdrawal symptoms to:

A. begin after 7 days.
B. not occur at all because the time period for their occurrence has passed.

C. begin anytime within the next 1 to 2 days.
D. begin within 2 to 7 days.

Rationale: Acute withdrawal symptoms from alcohol may begin 6 hours after the client has stopped drinking and peak 1 to 2 days later. Delirium tremens may occur 2 to 4 days — even up to 7 days — after the last drink.

38. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially, which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?

A. Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for 1 hour afterward

B. Letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere
C. Trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance
D. Giving the client as much time to eat as desired

Rationale: Because the client with anorexia nervosa may discard food or induce vomiting in the bathroom, the nurse should provide one-on-one supervision during meals and for 1 hour afterward. Option B wouldn't be therapeutic because other clients may urge the client to eat and give attention for not eating. Option C would reinforce control issues, which are central to this client's underlying psychological problem. Instead of giving the client unlimited time to eat, as in option D, the nurse should set limits and let the client know what is expected.

39. A client begins to experience alcoholic hallucinosis. What is the best nursing intervention at this time?

A. Keeping the client restrained in bed
B. Checking the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes and offering juices

C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed
D. Restraining the client and measuring blood pressure every 30 minutes

Rationale: Manifestations of alcoholic hallucinosis are best treated by providing a quiet environment to reduce stimulation and administering prescribed central nervous system depressants in dosages that control symptoms without causing oversedation. Although bed rest is indicated, restraints are unnecessary unless the client poses a danger to himself or others. Also, restraints may increase agitation and make the client feel trapped and helpless when hallucinating. Offering juice is appropriate, but measuring blood pressure every 15 minutes would interrupt the client's rest. To avoid overstimulating the client, the nurse should check blood pressure every 2 hours.

40. Which assessment finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal?

A. Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute
B. Heart rate of 50 to 60 beats/minute
C. Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg
D. Blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg

Rationale: Tachycardia, a heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute, is a common sign of alcohol withdrawal. Blood pressure may be labile throughout withdrawal, fluctuating at different stages. Hypertension typically occurs in early withdrawal. Hypotension, although rare during the early withdrawal stages, may occur in later stages. Hypotension is associated with cardiovascular collapse and most commonly occurs in clients who don't receive treatment. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs carefully throughout the entire alcohol withdrawal process.

41. Which client is at highest risk for suicide?

A. One who appears depressed, frequently thinks of dying, and gives away all personal possessions

B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available
C. One who tells others that he or she might do something if life doesn't get better soon
D. One who talks about wanting to die

Rationale: The client at highest risk for suicide is one who plans a violent death (for example, by gunshot, jumping off a bridge, or hanging), has a specific plan (for example, after the spouse leaves for work), and has the means readily available (for example, a rifle hidden in the garage). A client who gives away possessions, thinks about death, or talks about wanting to die or attempting suicide is considered at a lower risk for suicide because this behavior typically serves to alert others that the client is contemplating suicide and wishes to be helped.

42. Which of the following medical conditions is commonly found in clients with bulimia nervosa?

A. Allergies
B. Cancer

C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Hepatitis A

Rationale: Bulimia nervosa can lead to many complications, including diabetes, heart disease, and hypertension. The eating disorder isn't typically associated with allergies, cancer, or hepatitis A.

43. A high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse's assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome?

A. The student discusses conflicts over drug use.

B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor.

C. The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem.
D. The student reports increased comfort with making choices.

Rationale: All of the outcomes stated are desirable; however, the best outcome is that the student would agree to seek the assistance of a professional substance abuse counselor.

44. A client who reportedly consumes 1 qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, the physician is most likely to prescribe which drug?

A. clozapine (Clozaril)
B. thiothixene (Navane)

C. lorazepam (Ativan)
D. lithium carbonate (Eskalith)

Rationale: The best choice for preventing or treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms is lorazepam, a benzodiazepine. Clozapine and thiothixene are antipsychotic agents, and lithium carbonate is an antimanic agent; these drugs aren't used to manage alcohol withdrawal syndrome.

45. A client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client's spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. The nurse should suggest that the family join which organization?

A. Al-Anon
B. Make Today Count
C. Emotions Anonymous
D. Alcoholics Anonymous

Rationale: Al-Anon is an organization that assists family members to share common experiences and increase their understanding of alcoholism. Make Today Count is a support group for people with life-threatening or chronic illnesses. Emotions Anonymous is a support group for people experiencing depression, anxiety, or similar conditions. Alcoholics Anonymous is an organization that helps alcoholics recover by using a twelve-step program.

46. A client is admitted to the psychiatric clinic for treatment of anorexia nervosa. To promote the client's physical health, the nurse should plan to:

A. severely restrict the client's physical activities.
B. weigh the client daily, after the evening meal.

C. monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance.

D. instruct the client to keep an accurate record of food and fluid intake.

Rationale: An anorexic client who requires hospitalization is in poor physical condition from starvation and may die as a result of arrhythmias, hypothermia, malnutrition, infection, or cardiac abnormalities secondary to electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, monitoring the client's vital signs, serum electrolyte level, and acid base balance is crucial. Option A may worsen anxiety. Option B is incorrect because a weight obtained after breakfast is more accurate than one obtained after the evening meal. Option D would reward the client with attention for not eating and reinforce the control issues that are central to the underlying psychological problem; also, the client may record food and fluid intake inaccurately.

47. A young man is remanded by the courts for psychiatric treatment. His police record, which dates to his early teenage years, includes delinquency, running away, auto theft, and vandalism. He dropped out of school at age 16 and has been living on his own since then. His history suggests maladaptive coping, which is associated with:

A. antisocial personality disorder.
B. borderline personality disorder.
C. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
D. narcissistic personality disorder.

Rationale: The client's history of delinquency, running away from home, vandalism, and dropping out of school are characteristic of antisocial personality disorder. This maladaptive coping pattern is manifested by a disregard for societal norms of behavior and an inability to relate meaningfully to others. In borderline personality disorder, the client exhibits mood instability, poor self-image, identity disturbance, and labile affect. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with impulses and thoughts that the client realizes are senseless but can't control. Narcissistic personality disorder is marked by a pattern of self-involvement, grandiosity, and demand for constant attention.

48. A husband and wife seek emergency crisis intervention because he slapped her repeatedly the night before. The husband indicates that his childhood was marred by an abusive relationship with his father. When intervening with this couple, the nurse knows they are at risk for repeated violence because the husband:

A. has only moderate impulse control.
B. denies feelings of jealousy or possessiveness.

C. has learned violence as an acceptable behavior.
D. feels secure in his relationship with his wife.

Rationale: Family violence usually is a learned behavior, and violence typically leads to further violence, putting this couple at risk. Repeated slapping may indicate poor, not moderate, impulse control. Violent people commonly are jealous and possessive and feel insecure in their relationships.

49. A client whose husband just left her has a recurrence of anorexia nervosa. The nurse caring for her realizes that this exacerbation of anorexia nervosa results from the client's effort to:

A. manipulate her husband.

B. gain control of one part of her life.

C. commit suicide.
D. live up to her mother's expectations.

Rationale: By refusing to eat, a client with anorexia nervosa is unconsciously attempting to gain control over the only part of her life she feels she can control. This eating disorder doesn't represent an attempt to manipulate others or live up to their expectations (although anorexia nervosa has a high incidence in families that emphasize achievement). The client isn't attempting to commit suicide through starvation; rather, by refusing to eat, she is expressing feelings of despair, worthlessness, and hopelessness.

50. A client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. The nurse should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:

A. psychotherapy.

B. total abstinence.
C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA).
D. aversion therapy.

Rationale: Total abstinence is the only effective treatment for alcoholism. Psychotherapy, attendance at AA meetings, and aversion therapy are all adjunctive therapies that can support the client in his efforts to abstain.

51. Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before administering the medication, the nurse should be prepared for which common adverse effect?

A. Seizures
B. Shivering
C. Anxiety
D. Chest pain

Rationale: Seizures are the most common serious adverse effect of using flumazenil to reverse benzodiazepine overdose. The effect is magnified if the client has a combined tricyclic antidepressant and benzodiazepine overdose. Less common adverse effects include shivering, anxiety, and chest pain.

52. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed with bulimia is to:

A. avoid shopping for large amounts of food.
B. control eating impulses.

C. identify anxiety-causing situations.
D. eat only three meals per day.

Rationale: Bulimic behavior is generally a maladaptive coping response to stress and underlying issues. The client must identify anxiety-causing situations that stimulate the bulimic behavior and then learn new ways of coping with the anxiety. Controlling shopping for large amounts of food isn't a goal early in treatment. Managing eating impulses and replacing them with adaptive coping mechanisms can be integrated into the plan of care after initially addressing stress and underlying issues. Eating three meals per day isn't a realistic goal early in treatment.

53. A client who's at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client's safety, the nurse should:

A. check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night.

B. assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says.
C. repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client.
D. disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common in suicidal clients.

Rationale: Checking the client frequently but at irregular intervals prevents the client from predicting when observation will take place and altering behavior in a misleading way at these times. Option B may encourage the client to try to manipulate the nurse or seek attention for having a secret suicide plan. Option C may reinforce suicidal ideas. Decreased communication is a sign of withdrawal that may indicate the client has decided to commit suicide; the nurse shouldn't disregard it (option D

54. Which of the following drugs should the nurse prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level?

A. deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
B. succimer (Chemet)
C. flumazenil (Romazicon)

D. acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

Rationale: The antidote for acetaminophen toxicity is acetylcysteine. It enhances conversion of toxic metabolites to nontoxic metabolites. Deferoxamine mesylate is the antidote for iron intoxication. Succimer is an antidote for lead poisoning. Flumazenil reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

55. A client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following medications is the nurse most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

A. naloxone (Narcan)
B. haloperidol (Haldol)
C. magnesium sulfate

D. chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and other tranquilizers help reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Haldol) may be given to treat clients with psychosis, severe agitation, or delirium. Naloxone (Narcan) is administered for narcotic overdose. Magnesium sulfate and other anticonvulsant medications are only administered to treat seizures if they occur during withdrawal.
56. During postprandial monitoring, a client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, "You can sit with me, but you're just wasting your time. After you sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice." What is the nurse's best response?

A. "I trust you not to purge."
B. "How are you purging and when do you do it?"
C. "Don't worry. I won't allow you to purge today."

D. "I know it's important for you to feel in control, but I'll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat."

Rationale: This response acknowledges that the client is testing limits and that the nurse is setting them by performing postprandial monitoring to prevent self-induced emesis. Clients with bulimia nervosa need to feel in control of the diet because they feel they lack control over all other aspects of their lives. Because their therapeutic relationships with caregivers are less important than their need to purge, they don't fear betraying the nurse's trust by engaging in the activity. They commonly plot purging and rarely share their secrets about it. An authoritarian or challenging response may trigger a power struggle between the nurse and client.

57. A client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, "It felt so wonderful to get high." Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

A. "If you continue to talk like that, I'm going to stop speaking to you."

B. "You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night."
C. "Tell me more about how it felt to get high."
D. "Don't you know it's illegal to use drugs?"

Rationale: Confronting the client with the consequences of substance abuse helps to break through denial. Making threats (option A) isn't an effective way to promote self-disclosure or establish a rapport with the client. Although the nurse should encourage the client to discuss feelings, the discussion should focus on how the client felt before, not during, an episode of substance abuse (option C). Encouraging elaboration about his experience while getting high may reinforce the abusive behavior. The client undoubtedly is aware that drug use is illegal; a reminder to this effect (option D) is unlikely to alter behavior.

58. For a client with anorexia nervosa, which goal takes the highest priority?

A. The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake.
B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight.
C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic.
D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation.

Rationale: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, all humans need to meet basic physiological needs first. Because a client with anorexia nervosa eats little or nothing, the nurse must first plan to help the client meet this basic, immediate physiological need. The nurse may give lesser priority to goals that address long-term plans (as in option B), self-perception (as in option C), and potential complications (as in option D).

59. When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that child abuse may be a problem?

A. The injury isn't consistent with the history or the child's age.

B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened.
C. The family is poor.
D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel.

Rationale: When the child's injuries are inconsistent with the history given or impossible because of the child's age and developmental stage, the emergency department nurse should be suspicious that child abuse is occurring. The parents may tell different stories because their perception may be different regarding what happened. If they change their story when different health care workers ask the same question, this is a clue that child abuse may be a problem. Child abuse occurs in all socioeconomic groups. Parents may argue and be demanding because of the stress of having an injured child.

60. For a client with anorexia nervosa, the nurse plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?

A. They tend to overprotect their children.
B. They usually have a history of substance abuse.
C. They maintain emotional distance from their children.
D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children.

Rationale: Clients with anorexia nervosa typically come from a family with parents who are controlling and overprotective. These clients use eating to gain control of an aspect of their lives. The characteristics described in options B, C, and D aren't typical of parents of children with anorexia.

61. In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her with a shoe. After the health care team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence. Suddenly the client's husband arrives, shouting that he wants to "finish the job." What is the first priority of the health care worker who witnesses this scene?

A. Remaining with the client and staying calm

B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance
C. Telling the client's husband that he must leave at once
D. Determining why the husband feels so angry

Rationale: The health care worker who witnesses this scene must take precautions to ensure personal as well as client safety, but shouldn't attempt to manage a physically aggressive person alone. Therefore, the first priority is to call a security guard and another staff member. After doing this, the health care worker should inform the husband what is expected, speaking in concise statements and maintaining a firm but calm demeanor. This approach makes it clear that the health care worker is in control and may diffuse the situation until the security guard arrives. Telling the husband to leave would probably be ineffective because of his agitated and irrational state. Exploring his anger doesn't take precedence over safeguarding the client and staff.

62. The nurse is caring for a client with bulimia. Strict management of dietary intake is necessary. Which intervention is also important?

A. Fill out the client's menu and make sure she eats at least half of what is on her tray.
B. Let the client eat her meals in private. Then engage her in social activities for at least 2 hours after each meal.

C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal.
D. Let the client eat food brought in by the family if she chooses, but she should keep a strict calorie count.

Rationale: Allowing the client to select her own food from the menu will help her feel some sense of control. She must then eat 100% of what she selected. Remaining with the client for at least 1 hour after eating will prevent purging. Bulimic clients should only be allowed to eat food provided by the dietary department.

63. The nurse is assigned to care for a suicidal client. Initially, which is the nurse's highest care priority?

A. Assessing the client's home environment and relationships outside the hospital

B. Exploring the nurse's own feelings about suicide
C. Discussing the future with the client
D. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

Rationale: The nurse's values, beliefs, and attitudes toward self-destructive behavior influence responses to a suicidal client; such responses set the overall mood for the nurse-client relationship. Therefore, the nurse initially must explore personal feelings about suicide to avoid conveying negative feelings to the client. Assessment of the client's home environment and relationships may reveal the need for family therapy; however, conducting such an assessment isn't a nursing priority. Discussing the future and providing anticipatory guidance can help the client prepare for future stress, but this isn't a priority. Referring the client to a clergyperson may increase the client's trust or alleviate guilt; however, it isn't the highest priority.

64. A client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, "When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly." Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client's distorted perceptions and feelings?

A. Avoid discussing the client's perceptions and feelings.
B. Focus discussions on food and weight.
C. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight.

D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client's weight and attractiveness.

Rationale: By focusing on reality, this strategy may help the client develop a more realistic body image and gain self-esteem. Option A is inappropriate because discussing the client's perceptions and feeling wouldn't help her to identify, accept, and work through them. Focusing discussions on food and weight would give the client attention for not eating, making option B incorrect. Option C is inappropriate because recognizing unrealistic cultural standards wouldn't help the client establish more realistic weight goals.

65. The nurse is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of the following products?

A. Carbonated beverages

B. Aftershave lotion
C. Toothpaste
D. Cheese

Rationale: Disulfiram may be given to clients with chronic alcohol abuse who wish to curb impulse drinking. Disulfiram works by blocking the oxidation of alcohol, inhibiting the conversion of acetaldehyde to acetate. As acetaldehyde builds up in the blood, the client experiences noxious and uncomfortable symptoms. Even alcohol rubbed onto the skin can produce a reaction. The client receiving disulfiram must be taught to read ingredient labels carefully to avoid products containing alcohol such as aftershave lotions. Carbonated beverages, toothpaste, and cheese don't contain alcohol and don't need to be avoided by the client.

66. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the nurse include in the plan?

A. Restrict visits with the family until the client begins to eat.
B. Provide privacy during meals.

C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client.
D. Encourage the client to exercise, which will reduce her anxiety.

Rationale: Establishing a consistent eating plan and monitoring the client's weight are important for this disorder. The family should be included in the client's care. The client should be monitored during meals — not given privacy. Exercise must be limited and supervised.

67. Victims of domestic violence should be assessed for what important information?

A. Reasons they stay in the abusive relationship (for example, lack of financial autonomy and isolation)

B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources
C. Use of drugs or alcohol
D. History of previous victimization

Rationale: Victims of domestic violence must be assessed for their readiness to leave the perpetrator and their knowledge of the resources available to them. Nurses can then provide the victims with information and options to enable them to leave when they are ready. The reasons they stay in the relationship are complex and can be explored at a later time. The use of drugs or alcohol is irrelevant. There is no evidence to suggest that previous victimization results in a person's seeking or causing abusive relationships.

68. A client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident. Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2% (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling and numbness in the hands and feet. The nurse realizes that these symptoms probably result from:

A. acetate accumulation.

B. thiamine deficiency.
C. triglyceride buildup.
D. a below-normal serum potassium level

Rationale: Numbness and tingling in the hands and feet are symptoms of peripheral polyneuritis, which results from inadequate intake of vitamin B1 (thiamine) secondary to prolonged and excessive alcohol intake. Treatment includes reducing alcohol intake, correcting nutritional deficiencies through diet and vitamin supplements, and preventing such residual disabilities as foot and wrist drop. Acetate accumulation, triglyceride buildup, and a below-normal serum potassium level are unrelated to the client's symptoms.

69. A parent brings a preschooler to the emergency department for treatment of a dislocated shoulder, which allegedly happened when the child fell down the stairs. Which action should make the nurse suspect that the child was abused?

A. The child cries uncontrollably throughout the examination.
B. The child pulls away from contact with the physician.

C. The child doesn't cry when the shoulder is examined.
D. The child doesn't make eye contact with the nurse.

Rationale: A characteristic behavior of abused children is lack of crying when they undergo a painful procedure or are examined by a health care professional. Therefore, the nurse should suspect child abuse. Crying throughout the examination, pulling away from the physician, and not making eye contact with the nurse are normal behaviors for preschoolers.

70. When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), which of the following is the highest priority?

A. Client's physical needs

B. Client's safety needs
C. Client's psychosocial needs
D. Client's medical needs

Rationale: The highest priority for a client who has ingested PCP is meeting safety needs of the client as well as the staff. Drug effects are unpredictable and prolonged, and the client may lose control easily. After safety needs have been met, the client's physical, psychosocial, and medical needs can be met.

71. Which outcome criteria would be appropriate for a child diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder?

A. Accept responsibility for own behaviors.
B. Be able to verbalize own needs and assert rights.
C. Set firm and consistent limits with the client.
D. Allow the child to establish his own limits and boundaries.

Rationale: Children with oppositional defiant disorder frequently violate the rights of others. They are defiant, disobedient, and blame others for their actions. Accountability for their actions would demonstrate progress for the oppositional child. Options C and D aren't outcome criteria but interventions. Option B is incorrect as the oppositional child usually focuses on his own needs.

72. A client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, she sits staring blankly at her bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should the nurse approach her initially?

A. Enter the room quietly and move beside her to assess her injuries.
B. Call for staff back-up before entering the room and restraining her.
C. Move as much glass away from her as possible and sit next to her quietly.

D. Approach her slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling her name, and telling her that the nurse is here to help her.

Rationale: Ensuring the safety of the client and the nurse is the priority at this time. Therefore, the nurse should approach the client cautiously while calling her name and talking to her in a calm, confident manner. The nurse should keep in mind that the client shouldn't be startled or overwhelmed. After explaining that the nurse is there to help, the nurse should observe the client's response carefully. If the client shows signs of agitation or confusion or poses a threat, the nurse should retreat and request assistance. The nurse shouldn't attempt to sit next to the client or examine injuries without first announcing the nurse's presence and assessing the dangers of the situation.

73. A client with anorexia nervosa describes herself as "a whale." However, the nurse's assessment reveals that the client is 5′ 8" (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 90 lb (40.8 kg). Considering the client's unrealistic body image, which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

A. Asking the client to compare her figure with magazine photographs of women her age
B. Assigning the client to group therapy in which participants provide realistic feedback about her weight
C. Confronting the client about her actual appearance during one-on-one sessions, scheduled during each shift

D. Telling the client of the nurse's concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy

Rationale: A client with anorexia nervosa has an unrealistic body image that causes consumption of little or no food. Therefore, the client needs assistance with making decisions about health. Instead of protecting the client's health, options A, B, and C may serve to make the client defensive and more entrenched in her unrealistic body image.

74. Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7° C); heart rate, 126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. The nurse should suspect:

A. a postoperative infection.

B. alcohol withdrawal.
C. acute sepsis.
D. pneumonia.

Rationale: The client's vital signs and hallucinations suggest delirium tremens or alcohol withdrawal syndrome. Although infection, acute sepsis, and pneumonia may arise as postoperative complications, they wouldn't cause this client's signs and symptoms and typically would occur later in the postoperative course.

75. Clonidine (Catapres) can be used to treat conditions other than hypertension. For which of the following conditions might the drug be administered?

A. Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication
B. Alcohol withdrawal

C. Opiate withdrawal

D. Cocaine withdrawal

Rationale: Clonidine is used as adjunctive therapy in opiate withdrawal. Benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide (Librium), and neuropleptic agents, such as haloperidol, are used to treat alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines and neuropleptic agents are typically used to treat PCP intoxication. Antidepressants and medications with dopaminergic activity in the brain, such as fluoxotine (Prozac), are used to treat cocaine withdrawal.

76. One of the goals for a client with anorexia nervosa is that the client will demonstrate increased individual coping by responding to stress in constructive ways. Which of the following actions is the best indicator that the client is working toward meeting the goal?

A. The client drinks 4 L of fluid per day.
B. The client paces around the unit most of the day.

C. The client keeps a journal and discusses it with the nurse.
D. The client talks almost constantly with friends by telephone.

Rationale: The client is moving toward meeting the goal because recording and discussing feelings is a constructive way to manage stress. Although physical activity can reduce stress, the anorexic client is more likely to use pacing to burn calories and lose weight. Although talks with friends can decrease stress, constant talking is more likely a way of avoiding dealing with problems. Increased fluid intake may be an attempt by the client to curb her appetite and artificially increase her weight.

77. The nurse in the substance abuse unit is trying to encourage a client to attend Alcoholics Anonymous meetings. When the client asks the nurse what he must do to become a member, the nurse should respond:

A. "You must first stop drinking."
B. "Your physician must refer you to this program."

C. "Admit you're powerless over alcohol and that you need help."
D. "You must bring along a friend who will support you."

Rationale: The first of the "Twelve Steps of Alcoholics Anonymous" is admitting that an individual is powerless over alcohol and that life has become unmanageable. Although Alcoholics Anonymous promotes total abstinence, a client will still be accepted if he drinks. A physician referral isn't necessary to join. New members are assigned a support person who may be called upon when the client has the urge to drink.

78. An attorney who throws books and furniture around the office after losing a case is referred to the psychiatric nurse in the law firm's employee assistance program. The nurse knows that the client's behavior most likely represents the use of which defense mechanism?

A. Regression
B. Projection
C. Reaction-formation
D. Intellectualization

Rationale: An adult who throws temper tantrums, such as this one, is displaying regressive behavior, or behavior that is appropriate at a younger age. In projection, the client blames someone or something other than the source. In reaction formation, the client acts in opposition to his feelings. In intellectualization, the client overuses rational explanations or abstract thinking to decrease the significance of a feeling or event.

79. After completing chemical detoxification and a 12-step program to treat crack addiction, a client is being prepared for discharge. Which remark by the client indicates a realistic view of the future?

A. "I'm never going to use crack again."
B. "I know what I have to do. I have to limit my crack use."

C. "I'm going to take 1 day at a time. I'm not making any promises."
D. "I will substitue crack for something else"

Rationale: Twelve-step programs focus on recovery 1 day at a time. Such programs discourage people from claiming that they will never again use a substance, because relapse is common. The belief that one may use a limited amount of an abused substance indicates denial. Substituting one abused substance for another predisposes the client to cross-addiction.

80. The nurse is assessing a client on admission to the chemical dependency unit for alcohol detoxification. When the nurse asks about alcohol use, this client is most likely to:

A. accurately describe the amount consumed.

B. underestimate the amount consumed.
C. overestimate the amount consumed.
D. deny any consumption of alcohol.

Rationale: Most people who abuse substances underestimate their consumption in an attempt to conform to social norms or protect themselves. Few accurately describe or overestimate consumption; some may deny it. Therefore, on admission, quantitative and qualitative toxicology screens are done to validate information obtained from the client.

81. The nurse is assessing a 15-year-old female who's being admitted for treatment of anorexia nervosa. Which clinical manifestation is the nurse most likely to find?

A. Tachycardia
B. Warm, flushed extremities

C. Parotid gland tenderness
D. Coarse hair growth

Rationale: Frequent vomiting causes tenderness and swelling of the parotid glands. The reduced metabolism that occurs with severe weight loss produces bradycardia and cold extremities. Soft, downlike hair (called lanugo) may cover the extremities, shoulders, and face of an anorexic client.

82. A 38-year-old client is admitted for alcohol withdrawal. The most common early sign or symptom that this client is likely to experience is:

A. impending coma.
B. manipulating behavior.
C. suppression.

D. perceptual disorders.

Rationale: Perceptual disorders, especially frightening visual hallucinations, are very common with alcohol withdrawal. Coma isn't an immediate consequence. Manipulative behaviors are part of the alcoholic client's personality but aren't signs of alcohol withdrawal. Suppression is a conscious effort to conceal unacceptable thoughts, feelings, impulses, or acts and serves as a coping mechanism for most alcoholics.

83. The nurse is caring for an adolescent female who reports amenorrhea, weight loss, and depression. Which additional assessment finding would suggest that the woman has an eating disorder?

A. Wearing tight-fitting clothing
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Oily skin

D. Excessive and ritualized exercise

Rationale: A client with an eating disorder will normally exercise to excess in an effort to burn as many calories as possible. The client will usually wear loose-fitting clothing to hide what she considers to be a fat body. Skin and nails become dry and brittle and blood pressure and body temperature drop from excessive weight loss.

84. A client with a history of polysubstance abuse is admitted to the facility. She complains of nausea and vomiting 24 hours after admission. The nurse assesses the client and notes piloerection, pupillary dilation, and lacrimation. The nurse suspects that the client is going through which of the following withdrawals?

A. Alcohol withdrawal
B. Cannibis withdrawal
C. Cocaine withdrawal

D. Opioid withdrawal

Rationale: The symptoms listed are specific to opioid withdrawal. Alcohol withdrawal would show elevated vital signs. There is no real withdrawal from cannibis. Symptoms of cocaine withdrawal include depression, anxiety, and agitation.

85. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. Although she is 5′ 8" (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 103 lb (46.7 kg), she talks incessantly about how fat she is. Which measure should the nurse take first when caring for this client?

A. Teach the client about nutrition, calories, and a balanced diet.

B. Establish a trusting relationship with the client.

C. Discuss cultural stereotypes regarding thinness and attractiveness.
D. Explore the reasons why the client doesn't eat.

Rationale: A client with an eating disorder may be secretive and unwilling to admit that a problem exists. Therefore, the nurse first must establish a trusting relationship to elicit the client's feelings and thoughts. The anorexic client may spend long hours discussing nutrition or handling and preparing food in an effort to stall or avoid eating food; the nurse shouldn't reinforce her preoccupation with food, as in option A. Although cultural stereotypes may play a prominent role in anorexia nervosa, discussing these factors isn't the first action the nurse should take. Exploring the reasons why the client doesn't eat would increase her emotional investment in food and eating.

86. A client is admitted for an overdose of amphetamines. When assessing this client, the nurse should expect to see:

A. tension and irritability.
B. slow pulse.
C. hypotension.
D. constipation.

Rationale: An amphetamine is a nervous system stimulant that is subject to abuse because of its ability to produce wakefulness and euphoria. An overdose increases tension and irritability. Options B and C are incorrect because amphetamines stimulate norepinephrine, which increases the heart rate and blood flow. Diarrhea is a common adverse effect, so option D is incorrect.

87. Which of the following drugs may be abused because of tolerance and physiologic dependence.

A. lithium (Lithobid) and divalproex (Depakote).
B. verapamil (Calan) and chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

C. alprazolam (Xanax) and phenobarbital (Luminal)

D. clozapine (Clozaril) and amitriptyline (Elavil)

Rationale: Both benzodiazepines, such as alprazolam, and barbiturates, such as phenobarbital, are addictive, controlled substances. All the other drugs listed aren't addictive substances.

88. Which of the following groups are considered to be at highest risk for suicide?

A. Adolescents, men over age 45, and persons who have made previous suicide attempts
B. Teachers, divorced persons, and substance abusers
C. Alcohol abusers, widows, and young married men
D. Depressed persons, physicians, and persons living in rural areas

Rationale: Studies of those who commit suicide reveal the following high-risk groups: adolescents; men over age 45; persons who have made previous suicide attempts; divorced, widowed, and separated persons; professionals, such as physicians, dentists, and attorneys; students; unemployed persons; persons who are depressed, delusional, or hallucinating; alcohol or substance abusers; and persons who live in urban areas. Although more women attempt suicide than men, they typically choose less lethal means and therefore are less likely to succeed in their attempts.

89. Tourette syndrome is characterized by the presence of multiple motor and vocal tics. A vocal tic that involves repeating one's own sounds or words is known as:

A. echolalia.

B. palilalia.

C. apraxia.
D. aphonia.

Rationale: Palilalia is defined as the repetition of sounds and words. Echolalia is the act of repeating the words of others. Apraxia is the inability to carry out motor activities, and aphonia is the inability to speak

Nursing Information Technology

Thursday, July 22, 2010

60 Item Pediatric Nursing

60 Items pediatric Nursing questions with Rationale

89 Item Psychiatric Nursing Exam II : Substance Abuse, Eating disorders and Impulse control disorders

89 Item Psychiatric Nursing Exam II : Substance Abuse, Eating disorders and Impulse control disorders Correct Answers and Rationale

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