While researchers have known that obesity increases the risk for the development of colon cancer, the underlying molecular mechanisms have remained unclear.
Now, for the first time, a collaborative study of researchers at the Sbarro Institute for Cancer Research and Molecular Medicine at Temple University's College of Science and Technology and the Department of Hematology, Oncology and Molecular Medicine, Istituto Superiore di Sanità, Rome, Italy have found that an increase in leptin, a cytokine that is normally increased in obese or overweight individuals, may promote colorectal neoplasms by activating colorectal cancer stem cells.Their findings appear in the journal, Endrocrine-Related Cancer.
Cancer stem cells constitute a small subfraction of tumor cells that are characterized by long lifespan and capacity for self-renewal, and are responsible for tumor development, resistance to treatments and cancer recurrence. In colon cancer, leptin is able to increase the growth, survival, and resistance to certain chemotherapy treatments in this key cell population. Leptin, a fat tissue-derived pluripotent cytokine regulating appetite and energy balance in the brain, also controls many physiological and pathological processes in peripheral organs, including carcinogenesis.
Colon cancer has increased in developed countries, possibly due to sedentary lifestyles and high caloric diets. Prior research has linked obesity to colorectal cancer risk by .4-1.0 fold in men and up to 2.0 fold in premenopausal women.
"Since targeting cancer stem cells may be a translationally relevant strategy to improve clinical outcomes, interfering with leptin signaling by targeting leptin receptors might become a novel attractive option for colorectal cancer treatment, particularly in obese patients," says senior author of the study, Eva Surmacz, Ph.D., Associate Professor in Biology at Temple University and Director of the Obesity and Cancer Program at the Sbarro Institute.
"It is important to consider that cancer stem cells have been identified in several human malignancies," says Monica Bartucci, a collaborator of Professor Surmacz at Thomas Jefferson University who is now employed by the Istituto Superiore di Sanità in Rome. "Understanding how cancer stem cells interact with a tumor environment, including hormones like leptin, is likely to have significant implications for treatment management of different cancer types in human patients. We hope, in collaboration with Dr. Surmacz, not only to test the effects of leptin antagonist compounds on colon cancer stem cells but also to study the results of leptin stimulation on cancer stem cells isolated in other cancer tissues."
Source:
Sbarro Health Research Organization (SHRO)
Wednesday, July 21, 2010
50 Item Gastrointestinal Health Problems Test Drill
Situation 1: Children have a special fascination with the workings of the digestive system. To fully understand the digestive processes, Nurse Lavigña must be knowledgeable of the anatomy and physiology of the gastrointestinal system.
1. The alimentary canal is a continuous, coiled, hollow muscular tube that winds through the ventral cavity and is open at both ends. Its solid organs include all of the following except:
a. liver
b. gall bladder
c. stomach
d. pancreas
2. Pharynx is lined with mucous membranes and mucous secreting glands to ease the passage of food. The larygngopharynx serves as passageway for:
a. air only
b. air and water
c. food, fluids and air
d. air and food
3. Once food has been placed in the mouth, both mechanical and chemical digestions begin. The six activities of the digestive process are:
a. ingestion, mastication, digestion, deglutition, absorption, egestion
b. ingestion, mastication, deglutition, digestion, absorption, egestion
c. deglutition, ingestion, mastication, egestion, absorption, defecation
d. ingestion, digestion, mastication, deglutition, absorption, defecation
4. Most digestive activity occurs in the pyloric region of the stomach. What hormone stimulates the chief cells to produce pepsinogen?
a. Gastrin
b. Pepsin
c. HCl
d. Insulin
5. What pancreatic enzyme aids in the digestion of carbohydrates?
a. Lipase
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase
d. Chymotrypsin
Situation 2: Nurse Dorina is going to perform an abdominal examination to Mr. Lim who was admitted due to on and off pain since yesterday.
6. How will you position Mr. Lim prior to procedure?
a. supine with knees flexed
b. prone
c. lying on back
d. sim’s
7. To identify any localized bulging, distention and peristaltic waves, Nurse Dorina must perform which of the following?
a. Auscultation
b. Inspection
c. Palpation
d. Percussion
8. In order to identify areas of tenderness and swelling, Nurse Dorina must do:
a. deep palpation
b. light palpation
c. percussion
d. palpation
9. Mr. Lim verbalized pain on the right iliac region. Nurse Dorina knows that the organ affected would be the:
a. liver
b. sigmoid colon
c. appendix
d. duodenum
10. Mr. Lim felt pain upon release of Nurse Dorina’s hand. This can be referred as:
a. referred pain
b. rebound tenderness
c. direct tenderness
d. indirect tenderness
Situation 3: Mrs. Cruz was admitted in the Medical Floor due to pyrosis, dyspepsia and difficulty of swallowing.
11. Based from the symptoms presented, Nurse Yoshi might suspect:
a. Esophagitis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. GERD
d. Gastric Ulcer
12. What diagnostic test would confirm the type of problem Mrs. Cruz have?
a. barium enema
b. barium swallow
c. colonoscopy
d. lower GI series
13. Mrs. Cruz complained of pain and difficulty in swallowing. This term is referred as:
a. Odynophagia
b. Dysphagia
c. Pyrosis
d. Dyspepsia
14. To avoid acid reflux, Nurse Yoshi should advice Mrs. Cruz to avoid which type of diet?
a. cola, coffee and tea
b. high fat, carbonated and caffeinated beverages
c. beer and green tea
d. lechon paksiw and bicol express
15. Mrs. Cruz’ body mass index (BMI) is 25. You can categorized her as:
a. normal
b. overweight
c. underweight
d. obese
Situation 4: Nurse Gloria is the staff nurse assigned at the Emergency Department. During her shift, a patient was rushed – in the ED complaining of severe heartburn, vomiting and pain that radiates to the flank. The doctor suspects gastric ulcer.
16. What other symptoms will validate the diagnosis of gastric ulcer?
a. right epigastric pain
b. pain occurs when stomach is empty
c. pain occurs immediately after meal
d. pain not relieved by vomiting
17. What diagnostic test would yield good visualization of the ulcer crater?
a. Endoscopy
b. Gastrocopyc. Barium Swallow
d. Histology18. Peptic ulcer disease particularly gastric ulcer is thought to be cause by which of the following microorgamisms?
a. E. coli
b. H. pylori
c. S. aureus
d. K. pnuemoniae
19. She is for occult blood test, what specimen will you collect?
a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Stool
d. Gastric Juice
20. Preparation of the client for occult blood examination is:
a. Fluid intake limited only to 1 liter/day
b. NPO for 12 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
c. Increase fluid intake
d. Meatless diet for 48 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
Situation 5: IBD is a common inflammatory functional bowel disorder also known as spastic bowel, functional colitis and mucous colitis.
21. The client with IBS asks Nurse June what causes the disease. Which of the following responses by Nurse June would be most appropriate?
a. “This is an inflammation of the bowel caused by eating too much roughage”
b. “IBS is caused by a stressful lifestyle”
c. “The cause of this condition is unknown”
d. “There is thinning of the intestinal mucosa caused by ingestion of gluten”
22. Which of the following alimentary canal is the most common location for Chron’s disease?
a. Descending colon
b. Jejunum
c. Sigmoid Colon
d. Terminal Ileum
23. Which of the following factors is believed to be linked to Chron’s disease?
a. Diet
b. Constipation
c. Heredity
d. Lack of exercise
24. How about ulcerative colitis, which of the following factors is believed to cause it?
a. Acidic diet
b. Altered immunity
c. Chronic constipation
d. Emotional stress
25. Mr. Jung, had ulcerative colitis for 5 years and was admitted to the hospital. Which of the following factors was most likely of greatest significance in causing an exacerbation of the disease?
a. A demanding and stressful job
b. Changing to a modified vegetarian diet
c. Beginning a weight training program
d. Walking 2 miles everyday
Situation 6: A patient was admitted in the Medical Floor at St. Luke’s Hospital. He was asymptomatic. The doctor suspects diverticulosis.
26. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?
a. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine
b. A non – inflamed outpouching of the intestine
c. The partial impairment of the forward flow of instestinal contents
d. An abnormal protrusions of an oxygen trough the structure that usually holds it
27. Which of the following types of diet is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?
a. Low – fiber diet
b. High – fiber diet
c. High – protein diet
d. Low – carbohydrate diet
28. Which of the following tests should be administered to client with diverticulosis?
a. Proctosocpy
b. Barium enema
c. Barium swallow
d. Gastroscopy
29. To improve Mr. Trinidad’s condition, your best nursing intervention and teaching is:
a. Reduce fluid intake
b. Increase fiber in the diet
c. Administering of antibiotics
d. Exercise to increase intraabdominal pressure
30. Upon review of Mr. Trinidad’s chart, Nurse Drew noticed that he weighs 121 lbs and his height is 5 ft, 4 in. After computing for his Body Mass Index (BMI), you can categorize him as:
a. obese
b. normal
c. obese
d. underweight
Situation 7: Manny, 6 years old was admitted at Cardinal Santos Hospital due to increasing frequency of bowel movements, abdominal cramps and distension.
31. Diarrhea is said to be the leading cause of morbidity in the Philippines. Nurse Harry knows that diarrhea is present if:
a. passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per week
b. passage of stool is less than 3 bowel movements per day
c. passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per day
d. passage of stool is less than 3 bowel movements per week
32. Diarrhea is believed to be caused by all of the following except
a. increase intestinal secretions
b. altered immunity
c. decrease mucosal absorption
d. altered motility
33. What life threatening condition may result in persistent diarrhea?
a. hypokalemia
b. dehydration
c. cardiac dysrhytmias
d. leukocytosis
34. Voluminous, watery stools can deplete fluids and electrolytes. The acid base imbalance that can occur is:
a. metabolic alkalosis
b. metabolic acidosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. respiratory alkalosis
35. What is the immediate home care management for diarrhea?
a. Milk
b. Imodium
c. Water
d. Oresol
Situation 8: Mr. Sean is admitted to the hospital with a bowel obstruction. He complained of colicky pain and inability to pass stool.
36. Which of these findings by Nurse Leonard, would indicate that the obstruction is in the early stages?
a. high pitched tinkling or rumbling bowel sounds
b. hypoactive bowel sounds
c. no bowel sounds auscultated
d. normal bowel sounds heard in all four quadrants
37. Nasogastric tube was inserted to Mr. Sean. The NGT’s primary purpose is:
a. nutrition
b. decompression of bowel
c. passage for medication
d. aspiration of gastric contents
38. Mr. Sean has undergone surgery. Post – operatively, which of the following findings is normal?
a. absent bowel sounds
b. bleeding
c. hemorrhage
d. bowel movement
39. Client education should be given in order to prevent constipation. Nurse Leonard’s health teaching should include which of the following?
a. use of natural laxatives
b. fluid intake of 6 glasses per day
c. use of OTC laxatives
d. complete bed rest
40. Four hours post – operatively, Mr. Sean complains of guarding and rigidity of the abdomen. Nurse Leonard’s initial intervention is:
a. assess for signs of peritonitis
b. call the physician
c. administer pain medication
d. ignore the client
Situation 9: Mr. Gerald Liu, 19 y/o, is being admitted to a hospital unit complaining of severe pain in the lower abdomen. Admission vital signs reveal an oral temperature of 101.2 0F.
41. Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of appendicitis?
a. The pain is localized at a position halfway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest.
b. Mr. Liu describes the pain as occurring 2 hours after eating
c. The pain subsides after eating
d. The pain is in the left lower quadrant
42. Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?
a. A fecalith
b. Internal bowel occlusion
c. Bowel kinking
d. Abdominal wall swelling
43. The doctor ordered for a complete blood count. After the test, Nurse Ray received the result from the laboratory. Which laboratory values will confirm the diagnosis of appendicitis?
a. RBC 5.5 x 106/mm3
b. Hct 44 %
c. WBC 13, 000/mm3
d. Hgb 15 g/dL
44. Signs and symptoms include pain in the RLQ of the abdomen that may be localize at McBurney’s point. To relieve pain, Mr. Liu should assume which position?
a. Prone
b. Supine, stretched out
c. Sitting
d. Lying with legs drawn up
45. After a few minutes, the pain suddenly stops without any intervention. Nurse Ray might suspect that:
a. the appendix is still distended
b. the appendix may have ruptured
c. an increased in intrathoracic pressure will occur
d. signs and symptoms of peritonitis occur
Situation 10: Nurse Nico is caring to a 38-year-old female, G3P3 client who has been diagnosed with hemorrhoids.
46. Which of the following factors would most likely be a primary cause of her hemorrhoids?
a. Her age
b. Three vaginal delivery pregnancies
c. Her job as a school teacher
d. Varicosities in the legs
47. Client education should include minimizing client discomfort due to hemorrhoids. Nursing management should include:
a. Suggest to eat low roughage diet
b. Advise to wear silk undergarments
c. Avoid straining during defecation
d. Use of sitz bath for 30 minutes
48. The doctor orders for Witch Hazel 5 %. Nurse Nico knows that the action of this astringent is:
a. temporarily relieves pain, burning, and itching by numbing the nerve endings
b. causes coagulation (clumping) of proteins in the cells of the perianal skin or the lining of the anal canal
c. inhibits the growth of bacteria and other organisms
d. causes the outer layers of skin or other tissues to disintegrate
49. Which position would be ideal for the client in the early postoperative period after hemorrhoidectomy?
a. High Fowler’s
b. Supine
c. Side – lying
d. Trendelenburg’s
50. Nurse Nico instructs her client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy not to used sitz bath until at least 12 hours postoperatively to avoid which of the following complications?
a. Hemorrhage
b. Rectal Spasm
c. Urinary retention
d. Constipation
Answers and Rationales : CLICK HERE
1. The alimentary canal is a continuous, coiled, hollow muscular tube that winds through the ventral cavity and is open at both ends. Its solid organs include all of the following except:
a. liver
b. gall bladder
c. stomach
d. pancreas
2. Pharynx is lined with mucous membranes and mucous secreting glands to ease the passage of food. The larygngopharynx serves as passageway for:
a. air only
b. air and water
c. food, fluids and air
d. air and food
3. Once food has been placed in the mouth, both mechanical and chemical digestions begin. The six activities of the digestive process are:
a. ingestion, mastication, digestion, deglutition, absorption, egestion
b. ingestion, mastication, deglutition, digestion, absorption, egestion
c. deglutition, ingestion, mastication, egestion, absorption, defecation
d. ingestion, digestion, mastication, deglutition, absorption, defecation
4. Most digestive activity occurs in the pyloric region of the stomach. What hormone stimulates the chief cells to produce pepsinogen?
a. Gastrin
b. Pepsin
c. HCl
d. Insulin
5. What pancreatic enzyme aids in the digestion of carbohydrates?
a. Lipase
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase
d. Chymotrypsin
Situation 2: Nurse Dorina is going to perform an abdominal examination to Mr. Lim who was admitted due to on and off pain since yesterday.
6. How will you position Mr. Lim prior to procedure?
a. supine with knees flexed
b. prone
c. lying on back
d. sim’s
7. To identify any localized bulging, distention and peristaltic waves, Nurse Dorina must perform which of the following?
a. Auscultation
b. Inspection
c. Palpation
d. Percussion
8. In order to identify areas of tenderness and swelling, Nurse Dorina must do:
a. deep palpation
b. light palpation
c. percussion
d. palpation
9. Mr. Lim verbalized pain on the right iliac region. Nurse Dorina knows that the organ affected would be the:
a. liver
b. sigmoid colon
c. appendix
d. duodenum
10. Mr. Lim felt pain upon release of Nurse Dorina’s hand. This can be referred as:
a. referred pain
b. rebound tenderness
c. direct tenderness
d. indirect tenderness
Situation 3: Mrs. Cruz was admitted in the Medical Floor due to pyrosis, dyspepsia and difficulty of swallowing.
11. Based from the symptoms presented, Nurse Yoshi might suspect:
a. Esophagitis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. GERD
d. Gastric Ulcer
12. What diagnostic test would confirm the type of problem Mrs. Cruz have?
a. barium enema
b. barium swallow
c. colonoscopy
d. lower GI series
13. Mrs. Cruz complained of pain and difficulty in swallowing. This term is referred as:
a. Odynophagia
b. Dysphagia
c. Pyrosis
d. Dyspepsia
14. To avoid acid reflux, Nurse Yoshi should advice Mrs. Cruz to avoid which type of diet?
a. cola, coffee and tea
b. high fat, carbonated and caffeinated beverages
c. beer and green tea
d. lechon paksiw and bicol express
15. Mrs. Cruz’ body mass index (BMI) is 25. You can categorized her as:
a. normal
b. overweight
c. underweight
d. obese
Situation 4: Nurse Gloria is the staff nurse assigned at the Emergency Department. During her shift, a patient was rushed – in the ED complaining of severe heartburn, vomiting and pain that radiates to the flank. The doctor suspects gastric ulcer.
16. What other symptoms will validate the diagnosis of gastric ulcer?
a. right epigastric pain
b. pain occurs when stomach is empty
c. pain occurs immediately after meal
d. pain not relieved by vomiting
17. What diagnostic test would yield good visualization of the ulcer crater?
a. Endoscopy
b. Gastrocopyc. Barium Swallow
d. Histology18. Peptic ulcer disease particularly gastric ulcer is thought to be cause by which of the following microorgamisms?
a. E. coli
b. H. pylori
c. S. aureus
d. K. pnuemoniae
19. She is for occult blood test, what specimen will you collect?
a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Stool
d. Gastric Juice
20. Preparation of the client for occult blood examination is:
a. Fluid intake limited only to 1 liter/day
b. NPO for 12 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
c. Increase fluid intake
d. Meatless diet for 48 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
Situation 5: IBD is a common inflammatory functional bowel disorder also known as spastic bowel, functional colitis and mucous colitis.
21. The client with IBS asks Nurse June what causes the disease. Which of the following responses by Nurse June would be most appropriate?
a. “This is an inflammation of the bowel caused by eating too much roughage”
b. “IBS is caused by a stressful lifestyle”
c. “The cause of this condition is unknown”
d. “There is thinning of the intestinal mucosa caused by ingestion of gluten”
22. Which of the following alimentary canal is the most common location for Chron’s disease?
a. Descending colon
b. Jejunum
c. Sigmoid Colon
d. Terminal Ileum
23. Which of the following factors is believed to be linked to Chron’s disease?
a. Diet
b. Constipation
c. Heredity
d. Lack of exercise
24. How about ulcerative colitis, which of the following factors is believed to cause it?
a. Acidic diet
b. Altered immunity
c. Chronic constipation
d. Emotional stress
25. Mr. Jung, had ulcerative colitis for 5 years and was admitted to the hospital. Which of the following factors was most likely of greatest significance in causing an exacerbation of the disease?
a. A demanding and stressful job
b. Changing to a modified vegetarian diet
c. Beginning a weight training program
d. Walking 2 miles everyday
Situation 6: A patient was admitted in the Medical Floor at St. Luke’s Hospital. He was asymptomatic. The doctor suspects diverticulosis.
26. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?
a. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine
b. A non – inflamed outpouching of the intestine
c. The partial impairment of the forward flow of instestinal contents
d. An abnormal protrusions of an oxygen trough the structure that usually holds it
27. Which of the following types of diet is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?
a. Low – fiber diet
b. High – fiber diet
c. High – protein diet
d. Low – carbohydrate diet
28. Which of the following tests should be administered to client with diverticulosis?
a. Proctosocpy
b. Barium enema
c. Barium swallow
d. Gastroscopy
29. To improve Mr. Trinidad’s condition, your best nursing intervention and teaching is:
a. Reduce fluid intake
b. Increase fiber in the diet
c. Administering of antibiotics
d. Exercise to increase intraabdominal pressure
30. Upon review of Mr. Trinidad’s chart, Nurse Drew noticed that he weighs 121 lbs and his height is 5 ft, 4 in. After computing for his Body Mass Index (BMI), you can categorize him as:
a. obese
b. normal
c. obese
d. underweight
Situation 7: Manny, 6 years old was admitted at Cardinal Santos Hospital due to increasing frequency of bowel movements, abdominal cramps and distension.
31. Diarrhea is said to be the leading cause of morbidity in the Philippines. Nurse Harry knows that diarrhea is present if:
a. passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per week
b. passage of stool is less than 3 bowel movements per day
c. passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per day
d. passage of stool is less than 3 bowel movements per week
32. Diarrhea is believed to be caused by all of the following except
a. increase intestinal secretions
b. altered immunity
c. decrease mucosal absorption
d. altered motility
33. What life threatening condition may result in persistent diarrhea?
a. hypokalemia
b. dehydration
c. cardiac dysrhytmias
d. leukocytosis
34. Voluminous, watery stools can deplete fluids and electrolytes. The acid base imbalance that can occur is:
a. metabolic alkalosis
b. metabolic acidosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. respiratory alkalosis
35. What is the immediate home care management for diarrhea?
a. Milk
b. Imodium
c. Water
d. Oresol
Situation 8: Mr. Sean is admitted to the hospital with a bowel obstruction. He complained of colicky pain and inability to pass stool.
36. Which of these findings by Nurse Leonard, would indicate that the obstruction is in the early stages?
a. high pitched tinkling or rumbling bowel sounds
b. hypoactive bowel sounds
c. no bowel sounds auscultated
d. normal bowel sounds heard in all four quadrants
37. Nasogastric tube was inserted to Mr. Sean. The NGT’s primary purpose is:
a. nutrition
b. decompression of bowel
c. passage for medication
d. aspiration of gastric contents
38. Mr. Sean has undergone surgery. Post – operatively, which of the following findings is normal?
a. absent bowel sounds
b. bleeding
c. hemorrhage
d. bowel movement
39. Client education should be given in order to prevent constipation. Nurse Leonard’s health teaching should include which of the following?
a. use of natural laxatives
b. fluid intake of 6 glasses per day
c. use of OTC laxatives
d. complete bed rest
40. Four hours post – operatively, Mr. Sean complains of guarding and rigidity of the abdomen. Nurse Leonard’s initial intervention is:
a. assess for signs of peritonitis
b. call the physician
c. administer pain medication
d. ignore the client
Situation 9: Mr. Gerald Liu, 19 y/o, is being admitted to a hospital unit complaining of severe pain in the lower abdomen. Admission vital signs reveal an oral temperature of 101.2 0F.
41. Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of appendicitis?
a. The pain is localized at a position halfway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest.
b. Mr. Liu describes the pain as occurring 2 hours after eating
c. The pain subsides after eating
d. The pain is in the left lower quadrant
42. Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?
a. A fecalith
b. Internal bowel occlusion
c. Bowel kinking
d. Abdominal wall swelling
43. The doctor ordered for a complete blood count. After the test, Nurse Ray received the result from the laboratory. Which laboratory values will confirm the diagnosis of appendicitis?
a. RBC 5.5 x 106/mm3
b. Hct 44 %
c. WBC 13, 000/mm3
d. Hgb 15 g/dL
44. Signs and symptoms include pain in the RLQ of the abdomen that may be localize at McBurney’s point. To relieve pain, Mr. Liu should assume which position?
a. Prone
b. Supine, stretched out
c. Sitting
d. Lying with legs drawn up
45. After a few minutes, the pain suddenly stops without any intervention. Nurse Ray might suspect that:
a. the appendix is still distended
b. the appendix may have ruptured
c. an increased in intrathoracic pressure will occur
d. signs and symptoms of peritonitis occur
Situation 10: Nurse Nico is caring to a 38-year-old female, G3P3 client who has been diagnosed with hemorrhoids.
46. Which of the following factors would most likely be a primary cause of her hemorrhoids?
a. Her age
b. Three vaginal delivery pregnancies
c. Her job as a school teacher
d. Varicosities in the legs
47. Client education should include minimizing client discomfort due to hemorrhoids. Nursing management should include:
a. Suggest to eat low roughage diet
b. Advise to wear silk undergarments
c. Avoid straining during defecation
d. Use of sitz bath for 30 minutes
48. The doctor orders for Witch Hazel 5 %. Nurse Nico knows that the action of this astringent is:
a. temporarily relieves pain, burning, and itching by numbing the nerve endings
b. causes coagulation (clumping) of proteins in the cells of the perianal skin or the lining of the anal canal
c. inhibits the growth of bacteria and other organisms
d. causes the outer layers of skin or other tissues to disintegrate
49. Which position would be ideal for the client in the early postoperative period after hemorrhoidectomy?
a. High Fowler’s
b. Supine
c. Side – lying
d. Trendelenburg’s
50. Nurse Nico instructs her client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy not to used sitz bath until at least 12 hours postoperatively to avoid which of the following complications?
a. Hemorrhage
b. Rectal Spasm
c. Urinary retention
d. Constipation
Answers and Rationales : CLICK HERE
50 Item Gastrointestinal Health Problems Test Drill's Answers and Rationales
Situation 1: Children have a special fascination with the workings of the digestive system. To fully understand the digestive processes, Nurse Lavigña must be knowledgeable of the anatomy and physiology of the gastrointestinal system.
1. The alimentary canal is a continuous, coiled, hollow muscular tube that winds through the ventral cavity and is open at both ends. Its solid organs include all of the following except:
a. liver
b. gall bladder
c. stomach
d. pancreas
Answer: C. stomach
Rationale: Stomach is a hollow digestive organ in the GI tract. The liver, gall baldder and pancreas are all solid organs which are part of the hepato-biliary system. Test taking skills: which does not belong to the group?
2. Pharynx is lined with mucous membranes and mucous secreting glands to ease the passage of food. The larygngopharynx serves as passageway for:
a. air only
b. air and water
c. food, fluids and air
d. air and food
Answer: D. air and food
Rationale: The laryngopharynx serves as passageway for air and food and so as with the oropharynx. Option a is nasopharynx. Answers b and c may be correct but air and food is more accuarte.
3. Once food has been placed in the mouth, both mechanical and chemical digestions begin. The six activities of the digestive process are:
a. ingestion, mastication, digestion, deglutition, absorption, egestion
b. ingestion, mastication, deglutition, digestion, absorption, egestion
c. deglutition, ingestion, mastication, egestion, absorption, defecation
d. ingestion, digestion, mastication, deglutition, absorption, defecation
Answer: B. ingestion, mastication, deglutition, digestion, absorption, egestion
Rationale: The digestive processes involve six steps. Ingestion is taking in of food in the mouth; mastication is the mechanical process where food is converted into bolus; deglutition is the act of swallowing; digestion is the chemical breakdown of food into chime; absorption occurs in the small intestines (solutes) and large intestines (water) and egestion/defecation where elimination of feces occur.
4. Most digestive activity occurs in the pyloric region of the stomach. What hormone stimulates the chief cells to produce pepsinogen?
a. Gastrin
b. Pepsin
c. HCl
d. Insulin
Answer: A. Gastrin
Rationale: Gastrin stimulates chief cells to produce pepsinogen when foods enter and suppression of pepsinogen when it leaves and enters the small intestines; it is the major hormone that regulates acid secretion in the stomach. Pepsin; a gastric protease secreted in an inactive form, pepsinogen, which is activated by stomach acid that acts to degrade protein. HCl is produced by the parietal cells. Insulin is a pancreatic hormone.
5. What pancreatic enzyme aids in the digestion of carbohydrates?
a. Lipase
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase
d. Chymotrypsin
Answer: C. Amylase
Rationale: Amylase aids in the digestion of carbohydrates. Trypsin/Chymotrypsin aids in the digestion of proteins. Lipase aids in the digestion of fats.
Situation 2: Nurse Dorina is going to perform an abdominal examination to Mr. Lim who was admitted due to on and off pain since yesterday.
6. How will you position Mr. Lim prior to procedure?
a. supine with knees flexed
b. prone
c. lying on back
d. sim’s
Answers: A. supine with knees flexed
Rationale: During abdominal examination, positioning the client in supine with knees flexed will promote relaxation of abdominal muscles. Options b and d are inaccurate in this type of procedure. Lying on back or supine may be correct but option a is the best answer.
7. To identify any localized bulging, distention and peristaltic waves, Nurse Dorina must perform which of the following?
a. Auscultation
b. Inspection
c. Palpation
d. Percussion
Answer: B. Inspection
Rationale: Inspection is the first step in abdominal exam to note the contour and symmetry of abdomen as well as localized bulging, distention and peristaltic waves. Auscultation is done to determine the character, location and frequency of bowel sounds. Percussion is to assess tympany or dullness. Palpation is to asses areas of tenderness and discomfort. Note: In abdominal exam: Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion and Palpation are the correct order.
8. In order to identify areas of tenderness and swelling, Nurse Dorina must do:
a. deep palpation
b. light palpation
c. percussion
d. palpation
Answer: B. Light palpation
Rationale: Light palpation is done to identify areas of tenderness and swelling. Deep palpation is done to identify masses in all four quadrants. Test taking skills: one of the opposite is the correct answer
9. Mr. Lim verbalized pain on the right iliac region. Nurse Dorina knows that the organ affected would be the:
a. liver
b. sigmoid colon
c. appendix
d. duodenum
Answer: C. Appendix
Rationale: Appendix and cecum is located in the right iliac region. Liver and gall baldder is at the right hypochondriac. Sigmoid colon is at the left iliac. Duodenum, stomach and pancreas is in the epigastric region.
10. Mr. Lim felt pain upon release of Nurse Dorina’s hand. This can be referred as:
a. referred pain
b. rebound tenderness
c. direct tenderness
d. indirect tenderness
Answer: B. Rebound Tenderness
Rationale: Rebound tenderness is pain felt upon sudden release of the examiners hand which in most cases suggest peritonitis. Referred pain is pain felt in an area remote from the site of origin. Direct tenderness is localized pain upon palpation. Indirect tenderness is pain outside the area of palpation.
Situation 3: Mrs. Cruz was admitted in the Medical Floor due to pyrosis, dyspepsia and difficulty of swallowing.
11. Based from the symptoms presented, Nurse Yoshi might suspect:
a. Esophagitis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. GERD
d. Gastric Ulcer
Answer: C. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
Rationale: GERD is the backflow of gastric or duodenal contents into the esophagus caused by incompetent lower esophageal sphincter. Pyrosis or heartburn, dyspepsia and dysphagia are cardinal symptoms.
12. What diagnostic test would confirm the type of problem Mrs. Cruz have?
a. barium enema
b. barium swallow
c. colonoscopy
d. lower GI series
Answer: B. Barium swallow
Rationale: Barium swallow or upper GI series would confirm GERD. Endoscopy is another diagnostic test. Options a and d are the same. Option c is incorrect.
13. Mrs. Cruz complained of pain and difficulty in swallowing. This term is referred as:
a. Odynophagia
b. Dysphagia
c. Pyrosis
d. Dyspepsia
Answer: A. Odynophagia
Rationale: When difficulty of swallowing is accompanied with pain this is now referred as odynophagia. Dysphagia is difficulty of swallowing alone.
14. To avoid acid reflux, Nurse Yoshi should advice Mrs. Cruz to avoid which type of diet?
a. cola, coffee and tea
b. high fat, carbonated and caffeinated beverages
c. beer and green tea
d. lechon paksiw and bicol express
Answer: B. High fat, carbonated and caffeinated beverages
Rationale: All are correct but option b is the best answer. In patients with GERD, this type of diet must be avoided to avoid backflow of gastric contents. Excessive caffeine reduces the tone of lower esophageal sphincter. Test Taking Skills: look for the umbrella effect
15. Mrs. Cruz’ body mass index (BMI) is 25. You can categorized her as:
a. normal
b. overweight
c. underweight
d. obese
Answer: B. Overweight
Rationale: Mr. Cruz’ BMI belongs to the overweight category (24 – 26), malnourished (less than 17), underweight (17 – 19), normal (20 – 23), obese (27 – 30) and morbidly obese (greater than 30). BMI is weight in kilograms divided by height in square meters.
Situation 4: Nurse Gloria is the staff nurse assigned at the Emergency Department. During her shift, a patient was rushed – in the ED complaining of severe heartburn, vomiting and pain that radiates to the flank. The doctor suspects gastric ulcer.
16. What other symptoms will validate the diagnosis of gastric ulcer?
a. right epigastric pain
b. pain occurs when stomach is empty
c. pain occurs immediately after meal
d. pain not relieved by vomiting
Answer: C. Pain occurs immediately after meal.
Rationale: In gastric ulcer food intake aggravates pain which usually occur ½ - 1 hour before meal or immediately during or after food intake. Options a, b, c suggests duodenal ulcer.
17. What diagnostic test would yield good visualization of the ulcer crater?
a. Endoscopy
b. Gastroscopy
c. Barium Swallow
d. Histology
Answer: A. Endoscopy
Rationale: Endoscopy determines bleeding, pain, difficulty swallowing, and a change in bowel habits. This would yield good visualization of the ulcer crater. Other options are also diagnostic tests in PUD.
18. Peptic ulcer disease particularly gastric ulcer is thought to be cause by which of the following microorgamisms?
a. E. coli
b. H. pylori
c. S. aureus
d. K. pnuemoniae
Answer: B. H. pylori
Rationale: Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is a bacteria responsible for most ulcers and many cases of chronic gastritis (inflammation of the stomach). This organism can weaken the protective coating of the stomach and duodenum (first part of the small intestines), allowing the damaging digestive juices to irritate the sensitive lining of these body parts.
19. She is for occult blood test, what specimen will you collect?
a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Stool
d. Gastric Juice
Answer: C. Stool
Rationale: Occult blood test or stool guiac test is a test that detects the presence of hidden (occult) blood in the stool (bowel movement). The stool guaiac is the most common form of fecal occult blood test (FOBT) in use today. So stool specimen will be collected.
20. Preparation of the client for occult blood examination is:
a. Fluid intake limited only to 1 liter/day
b. NPO for 12 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
c. Increase fluid intake
d. Meatless diet for 48 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
Answer: D. Meatless diet for 48 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
Rationale: Eating meat can cause false positive test result. Using proper stool collection technique, avoiding certain drugs, and observing dietary restrictions can minimize these measurement errors.
Situation 5: IBD is a common inflammatory functional bowel disorder also known as spastic bowel, functional colitis and mucous colitis.
21. The client with IBS asks Nurse June what causes the disease. Which of the following responses by Nurse June would be most appropriate?
a. “This is an inflammation of the bowel caused by eating too much roughage”
b. “IBS is caused by a stressful lifestyle”
c. “The cause of this condition is unknown”
d. “There is thinning of the intestinal mucosa caused by ingestion of gluten”
Answer: C. “The cause of this condition is unknown”
Rationale: There is no known cause of IBS, and diagnosis is made by excluding all the other diseases that cause the symptoms. There is no inflammation if the bowel. Some factors exacerbate the symptoms including anxiety, fear, stress, depression, some foods and drugs but there do not cause the disease.
22. Which of the following alimentary canal is the most common location for Chron’s disease?
a. Descending colon
b. Jejunum
c. Sigmoid Colon
d. Terminal Ileum
Answer: D. Terminal Ileum
Rationale: Chronic inflammatory of GI mucosa occurs anywhere from the mouth to anus but most often in terminal ileum. Inflammatory lesions are local and involve all layers of the intestinal wall.
23. Which of the following factors is believed to be linked to Chron’s disease?
a. Diet
b. Constipation
c. Heredity
d. Lack of exercise
Answer: C. Heredity
Rationale: The cause is unknown but is thought to be multifactorial. Heredity, infectious agents, altered immunity or autoimmune and environmental are factors to be considered. Test taking skill: which does not belong? Options a, b, and d are all modifiable factors.
24. How about ulcerative colitis, which of the following factors is believed to cause it?
a. Acidic diet
b. Altered immunity
c. Chronic constipation
d. Emotional stress
Answer: B. Altered immunity
Rationale: refer to rationale for number 23. Test taking skill: which does notbelong? Options a, c and d are all modifiable factors.
25. Mr. Jung, had ulcerative colitis for 5 years and was admitted to the hospital. Which of the following factors was most likely of greatest significance in causing an exacerbation of the disease?
a. A demanding and stressful job
b. Changing to a modified vegetarian diet
c. Beginning a weight training program
d. Walking 2 miles everyday
Answer: A. A demanding and stressful job.
Rationale: Stress is an environmental factor that is thought to cause ulcerative colitis. Test taking skill: options b, c, and d are all healthy lifestyles.
Situation 6: A patient was admitted in the Medical Floor at St. Luke’s Hospital. He was asymptomatic. The doctor suspects diverticulosis.
26. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?
a. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine
b. A non – inflamed outpouching of the intestine
c. The partial impairment of the forward flow of instestinal contents
d. An abnormal protrusions of an oxygen through the structure that usually holds it
Answer: B. A non – inflamed outpouching of the intestine.
Rationale: An increase intraluminal pressure causes the outpouching of the colon wall resulting to diverticulosis. Option a suggests diverticulitis. Test taking skill: one of the opposite is the correct answer.
27. Which of the following types of diet is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?
a. Low – fiber diet
b. High – fiber diet
c. High – protein diet
d. Low – carbohydrate diet
Answer: A. Low – Fiber Diet
Rationale: A lack of adequate blood supply and nutrients from the diet such as low fiber foods may contribute to the development of the disease. Test taking skill: one of the opposite is the correct answer.
28. Which of the following tests should be administered to client with diverticulosis?
a. Proctosocpy
b. Barium enema
c. Barium swallow
d. Gastroscopy
Answer: B. Barium enema
Rationale: Barium enema is used to diagnose diverticulosis, however, this is contraindicated when diverticulitis is present because of the risk of rupturing the diverticulum. Test taking skill: options b and c are opposite; one may be the correct answer.
29. To improve Mr. Trinidad’s condition, your best nursing intervention and teaching is:
a. Reduce fluid intake
b. Increase fiber in the diet
c. Administering of antibiotics
d. Exercise to increase intraabdominal pressure
Answer: B. Increase fiber in the diet.
Rationale: Patient with diverticulosis must be encouraged to increase roughage in diet such as fruits and vegetables rich in fiber. Increasing fluid intake 2 – 3 liters/day unless contraindicated rather reducing. Administering antibiotics can decrease bowel flora and infection but this is a dependent function of a nurse.
30. Upon review of Mr. Trinidad’s chart, Nurse Drew noticed that he weighs 121 lbs and his height is 5 ft, 4 in. After computing for his Body Mass Index (BMI), you can categorize him as:
a. obese
b. normal
c. obese
d. underweight
Answer: B. Normal
Rationale: Mr. Trinidad’s BMI is 23 which is normal. Refer to rationale number 15.
Situation 7: Manny, 6 years old was admitted at Cardinal Santos Hospital due to increasing frequency of bowel movements, abdominal cramps and distension.
31. Diarrhea is said to be the leading cause of morbidity in the Philippines. Nurse Harry knows that diarrhea is present if:
a. passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per week
b. passage of stool is less than 3 bowel movements per day
c. passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per day
d. passage of stool is less than 3 bowel movements per week
Answer: C. passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per day (thanks to Budek for the correction)
1. The alimentary canal is a continuous, coiled, hollow muscular tube that winds through the ventral cavity and is open at both ends. Its solid organs include all of the following except:
a. liver
b. gall bladder
c. stomach
d. pancreas
Answer: C. stomach
Rationale: Stomach is a hollow digestive organ in the GI tract. The liver, gall baldder and pancreas are all solid organs which are part of the hepato-biliary system. Test taking skills: which does not belong to the group?
2. Pharynx is lined with mucous membranes and mucous secreting glands to ease the passage of food. The larygngopharynx serves as passageway for:
a. air only
b. air and water
c. food, fluids and air
d. air and food
Answer: D. air and food
Rationale: The laryngopharynx serves as passageway for air and food and so as with the oropharynx. Option a is nasopharynx. Answers b and c may be correct but air and food is more accuarte.
3. Once food has been placed in the mouth, both mechanical and chemical digestions begin. The six activities of the digestive process are:
a. ingestion, mastication, digestion, deglutition, absorption, egestion
b. ingestion, mastication, deglutition, digestion, absorption, egestion
c. deglutition, ingestion, mastication, egestion, absorption, defecation
d. ingestion, digestion, mastication, deglutition, absorption, defecation
Answer: B. ingestion, mastication, deglutition, digestion, absorption, egestion
Rationale: The digestive processes involve six steps. Ingestion is taking in of food in the mouth; mastication is the mechanical process where food is converted into bolus; deglutition is the act of swallowing; digestion is the chemical breakdown of food into chime; absorption occurs in the small intestines (solutes) and large intestines (water) and egestion/defecation where elimination of feces occur.
4. Most digestive activity occurs in the pyloric region of the stomach. What hormone stimulates the chief cells to produce pepsinogen?
a. Gastrin
b. Pepsin
c. HCl
d. Insulin
Answer: A. Gastrin
Rationale: Gastrin stimulates chief cells to produce pepsinogen when foods enter and suppression of pepsinogen when it leaves and enters the small intestines; it is the major hormone that regulates acid secretion in the stomach. Pepsin; a gastric protease secreted in an inactive form, pepsinogen, which is activated by stomach acid that acts to degrade protein. HCl is produced by the parietal cells. Insulin is a pancreatic hormone.
5. What pancreatic enzyme aids in the digestion of carbohydrates?
a. Lipase
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase
d. Chymotrypsin
Answer: C. Amylase
Rationale: Amylase aids in the digestion of carbohydrates. Trypsin/Chymotrypsin aids in the digestion of proteins. Lipase aids in the digestion of fats.
Situation 2: Nurse Dorina is going to perform an abdominal examination to Mr. Lim who was admitted due to on and off pain since yesterday.
6. How will you position Mr. Lim prior to procedure?
a. supine with knees flexed
b. prone
c. lying on back
d. sim’s
Answers: A. supine with knees flexed
Rationale: During abdominal examination, positioning the client in supine with knees flexed will promote relaxation of abdominal muscles. Options b and d are inaccurate in this type of procedure. Lying on back or supine may be correct but option a is the best answer.
7. To identify any localized bulging, distention and peristaltic waves, Nurse Dorina must perform which of the following?
a. Auscultation
b. Inspection
c. Palpation
d. Percussion
Answer: B. Inspection
Rationale: Inspection is the first step in abdominal exam to note the contour and symmetry of abdomen as well as localized bulging, distention and peristaltic waves. Auscultation is done to determine the character, location and frequency of bowel sounds. Percussion is to assess tympany or dullness. Palpation is to asses areas of tenderness and discomfort. Note: In abdominal exam: Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion and Palpation are the correct order.
8. In order to identify areas of tenderness and swelling, Nurse Dorina must do:
a. deep palpation
b. light palpation
c. percussion
d. palpation
Answer: B. Light palpation
Rationale: Light palpation is done to identify areas of tenderness and swelling. Deep palpation is done to identify masses in all four quadrants. Test taking skills: one of the opposite is the correct answer
9. Mr. Lim verbalized pain on the right iliac region. Nurse Dorina knows that the organ affected would be the:
a. liver
b. sigmoid colon
c. appendix
d. duodenum
Answer: C. Appendix
Rationale: Appendix and cecum is located in the right iliac region. Liver and gall baldder is at the right hypochondriac. Sigmoid colon is at the left iliac. Duodenum, stomach and pancreas is in the epigastric region.
10. Mr. Lim felt pain upon release of Nurse Dorina’s hand. This can be referred as:
a. referred pain
b. rebound tenderness
c. direct tenderness
d. indirect tenderness
Answer: B. Rebound Tenderness
Rationale: Rebound tenderness is pain felt upon sudden release of the examiners hand which in most cases suggest peritonitis. Referred pain is pain felt in an area remote from the site of origin. Direct tenderness is localized pain upon palpation. Indirect tenderness is pain outside the area of palpation.
Situation 3: Mrs. Cruz was admitted in the Medical Floor due to pyrosis, dyspepsia and difficulty of swallowing.
11. Based from the symptoms presented, Nurse Yoshi might suspect:
a. Esophagitis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. GERD
d. Gastric Ulcer
Answer: C. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
Rationale: GERD is the backflow of gastric or duodenal contents into the esophagus caused by incompetent lower esophageal sphincter. Pyrosis or heartburn, dyspepsia and dysphagia are cardinal symptoms.
12. What diagnostic test would confirm the type of problem Mrs. Cruz have?
a. barium enema
b. barium swallow
c. colonoscopy
d. lower GI series
Answer: B. Barium swallow
Rationale: Barium swallow or upper GI series would confirm GERD. Endoscopy is another diagnostic test. Options a and d are the same. Option c is incorrect.
13. Mrs. Cruz complained of pain and difficulty in swallowing. This term is referred as:
a. Odynophagia
b. Dysphagia
c. Pyrosis
d. Dyspepsia
Answer: A. Odynophagia
Rationale: When difficulty of swallowing is accompanied with pain this is now referred as odynophagia. Dysphagia is difficulty of swallowing alone.
14. To avoid acid reflux, Nurse Yoshi should advice Mrs. Cruz to avoid which type of diet?
a. cola, coffee and tea
b. high fat, carbonated and caffeinated beverages
c. beer and green tea
d. lechon paksiw and bicol express
Answer: B. High fat, carbonated and caffeinated beverages
Rationale: All are correct but option b is the best answer. In patients with GERD, this type of diet must be avoided to avoid backflow of gastric contents. Excessive caffeine reduces the tone of lower esophageal sphincter. Test Taking Skills: look for the umbrella effect
15. Mrs. Cruz’ body mass index (BMI) is 25. You can categorized her as:
a. normal
b. overweight
c. underweight
d. obese
Answer: B. Overweight
Rationale: Mr. Cruz’ BMI belongs to the overweight category (24 – 26), malnourished (less than 17), underweight (17 – 19), normal (20 – 23), obese (27 – 30) and morbidly obese (greater than 30). BMI is weight in kilograms divided by height in square meters.
Situation 4: Nurse Gloria is the staff nurse assigned at the Emergency Department. During her shift, a patient was rushed – in the ED complaining of severe heartburn, vomiting and pain that radiates to the flank. The doctor suspects gastric ulcer.
16. What other symptoms will validate the diagnosis of gastric ulcer?
a. right epigastric pain
b. pain occurs when stomach is empty
c. pain occurs immediately after meal
d. pain not relieved by vomiting
Answer: C. Pain occurs immediately after meal.
Rationale: In gastric ulcer food intake aggravates pain which usually occur ½ - 1 hour before meal or immediately during or after food intake. Options a, b, c suggests duodenal ulcer.
17. What diagnostic test would yield good visualization of the ulcer crater?
a. Endoscopy
b. Gastroscopy
c. Barium Swallow
d. Histology
Answer: A. Endoscopy
Rationale: Endoscopy determines bleeding, pain, difficulty swallowing, and a change in bowel habits. This would yield good visualization of the ulcer crater. Other options are also diagnostic tests in PUD.
18. Peptic ulcer disease particularly gastric ulcer is thought to be cause by which of the following microorgamisms?
a. E. coli
b. H. pylori
c. S. aureus
d. K. pnuemoniae
Answer: B. H. pylori
Rationale: Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is a bacteria responsible for most ulcers and many cases of chronic gastritis (inflammation of the stomach). This organism can weaken the protective coating of the stomach and duodenum (first part of the small intestines), allowing the damaging digestive juices to irritate the sensitive lining of these body parts.
19. She is for occult blood test, what specimen will you collect?
a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Stool
d. Gastric Juice
Answer: C. Stool
Rationale: Occult blood test or stool guiac test is a test that detects the presence of hidden (occult) blood in the stool (bowel movement). The stool guaiac is the most common form of fecal occult blood test (FOBT) in use today. So stool specimen will be collected.
20. Preparation of the client for occult blood examination is:
a. Fluid intake limited only to 1 liter/day
b. NPO for 12 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
c. Increase fluid intake
d. Meatless diet for 48 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
Answer: D. Meatless diet for 48 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
Rationale: Eating meat can cause false positive test result. Using proper stool collection technique, avoiding certain drugs, and observing dietary restrictions can minimize these measurement errors.
Situation 5: IBD is a common inflammatory functional bowel disorder also known as spastic bowel, functional colitis and mucous colitis.
21. The client with IBS asks Nurse June what causes the disease. Which of the following responses by Nurse June would be most appropriate?
a. “This is an inflammation of the bowel caused by eating too much roughage”
b. “IBS is caused by a stressful lifestyle”
c. “The cause of this condition is unknown”
d. “There is thinning of the intestinal mucosa caused by ingestion of gluten”
Answer: C. “The cause of this condition is unknown”
Rationale: There is no known cause of IBS, and diagnosis is made by excluding all the other diseases that cause the symptoms. There is no inflammation if the bowel. Some factors exacerbate the symptoms including anxiety, fear, stress, depression, some foods and drugs but there do not cause the disease.
22. Which of the following alimentary canal is the most common location for Chron’s disease?
a. Descending colon
b. Jejunum
c. Sigmoid Colon
d. Terminal Ileum
Answer: D. Terminal Ileum
Rationale: Chronic inflammatory of GI mucosa occurs anywhere from the mouth to anus but most often in terminal ileum. Inflammatory lesions are local and involve all layers of the intestinal wall.
23. Which of the following factors is believed to be linked to Chron’s disease?
a. Diet
b. Constipation
c. Heredity
d. Lack of exercise
Answer: C. Heredity
Rationale: The cause is unknown but is thought to be multifactorial. Heredity, infectious agents, altered immunity or autoimmune and environmental are factors to be considered. Test taking skill: which does not belong? Options a, b, and d are all modifiable factors.
24. How about ulcerative colitis, which of the following factors is believed to cause it?
a. Acidic diet
b. Altered immunity
c. Chronic constipation
d. Emotional stress
Answer: B. Altered immunity
Rationale: refer to rationale for number 23. Test taking skill: which does notbelong? Options a, c and d are all modifiable factors.
25. Mr. Jung, had ulcerative colitis for 5 years and was admitted to the hospital. Which of the following factors was most likely of greatest significance in causing an exacerbation of the disease?
a. A demanding and stressful job
b. Changing to a modified vegetarian diet
c. Beginning a weight training program
d. Walking 2 miles everyday
Answer: A. A demanding and stressful job.
Rationale: Stress is an environmental factor that is thought to cause ulcerative colitis. Test taking skill: options b, c, and d are all healthy lifestyles.
Situation 6: A patient was admitted in the Medical Floor at St. Luke’s Hospital. He was asymptomatic. The doctor suspects diverticulosis.
26. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?
a. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine
b. A non – inflamed outpouching of the intestine
c. The partial impairment of the forward flow of instestinal contents
d. An abnormal protrusions of an oxygen through the structure that usually holds it
Answer: B. A non – inflamed outpouching of the intestine.
Rationale: An increase intraluminal pressure causes the outpouching of the colon wall resulting to diverticulosis. Option a suggests diverticulitis. Test taking skill: one of the opposite is the correct answer.
27. Which of the following types of diet is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?
a. Low – fiber diet
b. High – fiber diet
c. High – protein diet
d. Low – carbohydrate diet
Answer: A. Low – Fiber Diet
Rationale: A lack of adequate blood supply and nutrients from the diet such as low fiber foods may contribute to the development of the disease. Test taking skill: one of the opposite is the correct answer.
28. Which of the following tests should be administered to client with diverticulosis?
a. Proctosocpy
b. Barium enema
c. Barium swallow
d. Gastroscopy
Answer: B. Barium enema
Rationale: Barium enema is used to diagnose diverticulosis, however, this is contraindicated when diverticulitis is present because of the risk of rupturing the diverticulum. Test taking skill: options b and c are opposite; one may be the correct answer.
29. To improve Mr. Trinidad’s condition, your best nursing intervention and teaching is:
a. Reduce fluid intake
b. Increase fiber in the diet
c. Administering of antibiotics
d. Exercise to increase intraabdominal pressure
Answer: B. Increase fiber in the diet.
Rationale: Patient with diverticulosis must be encouraged to increase roughage in diet such as fruits and vegetables rich in fiber. Increasing fluid intake 2 – 3 liters/day unless contraindicated rather reducing. Administering antibiotics can decrease bowel flora and infection but this is a dependent function of a nurse.
30. Upon review of Mr. Trinidad’s chart, Nurse Drew noticed that he weighs 121 lbs and his height is 5 ft, 4 in. After computing for his Body Mass Index (BMI), you can categorize him as:
a. obese
b. normal
c. obese
d. underweight
Answer: B. Normal
Rationale: Mr. Trinidad’s BMI is 23 which is normal. Refer to rationale number 15.
Situation 7: Manny, 6 years old was admitted at Cardinal Santos Hospital due to increasing frequency of bowel movements, abdominal cramps and distension.
31. Diarrhea is said to be the leading cause of morbidity in the Philippines. Nurse Harry knows that diarrhea is present if:
a. passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per week
b. passage of stool is less than 3 bowel movements per day
c. passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per day
d. passage of stool is less than 3 bowel movements per week
Answer: C. passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per day (thanks to Budek for the correction)
32. Diarrhea is believed to be caused by all of the following except
a. increase intestinal secretions
b. altered immunity
c. decrease mucosal absorption
d. altered motility
Answer: B. Altered Immunity
Rationale: Diarhhea is an intestinal disorder that is self – limiting. Options a, c and d are etiological factors of diarrhea.
33. What life threatening condition may result in persistent diarrhea?
a. hypokalemia
b. dehydration
c. cardiac dysrhytmias
d. leukocytosis
Answer: C. Cardiac dysrhytmias
Rationale: Due to increase frequency and fluid content in the stools, diarrhea may cause fluid and electrolyte imbalance such as hypokalemia. Once potassium is depleted, this will affect the contractility of the heart causing cardiac arrhythmia leading to death.
34. Voluminous, watery stools can deplete fluids and electrolytes. The acid base imbalance that can occur is:
a. metabolic alkalosis
b. metabolic acidosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B. Metabolic acidosis
Rationale: In diarrhea, metabolic acidosis is the acid – base imbalance that occurs while in vomiting, metabolic alkalosis occur. This is a metabolic disorder that’s why eliminate options c and d. Tip: Just remember the sound when you’re vomiting (alk alk alk alosis) and the sound of passage of watery stool (uhhhm uhhh ashhi dosis) hehehe
35. What is the immediate home care management for diarrhea?
a. Milk
b. Imodium
c. Water
d. Oresol
Answer: D. Oresol
Rationale: In the DOH book, oresol is the immediate home care management for diarrhea to prevent dehydration. Water may not be enough to prevent diarrhea.
Situation 8: Mr. Sean is admitted to the hospital with a bowel obstruction. He complained of colicky pain and inability to pass stool.
36. Which of these findings by Nurse Leonard, would indicate that the obstruction is in the early stages?
a. high pitched tinkling or rumbling bowel sounds
b. hypoactive bowel sounds
c. no bowel sounds auscultated
d. normal bowel sounds heard in all four quadrants
Answer: A. High pitched tinkling or rumbling bowel sounds
Rationale: Early in the bowel obstruction, the bowel attempts to move the contents past the obstruction and this is heard as high pitched tinkling bowel sounds. As the obstruction progresses, bowel sounds will diminish and may finally become absent.
37. Nasogastric tube was inserted to Mr. Sean. The NGT’s primary purpose is:
a. nutrition
b. decompression of bowel
c. passage for medication
d. aspiration of gastric contents
Answer: B. Decompression of bowel
Rationale: The NGT’s primary purpose is for bowel decompression especially for clients suffering from obstruction.
38. Mr. Sean has undergone surgery. Post – operatively, which of the following findings is normal?
a. absent bowel sounds
b. bleeding
c. hemorrhage
d. bowel movement
Answer: A. Absent bowel sounds
Rationale: Post – operatively, no bowel sounds are present so this is a normal finding. Bleeding and hemorrhage must be prevented to avoid complications. Bowel movement occurs only after flatus and bowel sounds are noted.
39. Client education should be given in order to prevent constipation. Nurse Leonard’s health teaching should include which of the following?
a. use of natural laxatives
b. fluid intake of 6 glasses per day
c. use of OTC laxatives
d. complete bed rest
Answer: A. Use of natural laxatives
Rationale: The use of natural laxatives such as foods and fruits high in fiber is still the best way of preventing constipation Increasing fluid intake, taking laxatives judiciously and exercise also can prevent this.
40. Four hours post – operatively, Mr. Sean complains of guarding and rigidity of the abdomen. Nurse Leonard’s initial intervention is:
a. assess for signs of peritonitis
b. call the physician
c. administer pain medication
d. ignore the client
Answer: A. Assess for signs of peritonitis
Rationale: Assessment precedes intervention. Symptoms presented are signs of peritonitis. Assessment will provide you the data for prompt intervention.
Situation 9: Mr. Gerald Liu, 19 y/o, is being admitted to a hospital unit complaining of severe pain in the lower abdomen. Admission vital signs reveal an oral temperature of 101.2 0F.
41. Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of appendicitis?
a. The pain is localized at a position halfway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest.
b. Mr. Liu describes the pain as occurring 2 hours after eating
c. The pain subsides after eating
d. The pain is in the left lower quadrant
Answer: A. The pain is localized at a position halfway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest. Rationale: Pain over McBurney’s point, the point halfway between the umbilicus and the iliac crest, is diagnosis for appendicitis. Options b and c are common with ulcers; option d may suggest ulcerative colitis or diverticulitis.
42. Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?
a. A fecalith
b. Internal bowel occlusion
c. Bowel kinking
d. Abdominal wall swelling
Answer: A. A fecalith
Rationale: A fecalith is a hard piece of stool which is stone like that commonly obstructs the lumen. Due to obstruction, inflammation and bacterial invasion can occur. Tumors or foreign bodies may also cause obstruction.
43. The doctor ordered for a complete blood count. After the test, Nurse Ray received the result from the laboratory. Which laboratory values will confirm the diagnosis of appendicitis?
a. RBC 5.5 x 106/mm3
b. Hct 44 %
c. WBC 13, 000/mm3
d. Hgb 15 g/dL
Answer: C. WBC 13, 000/mm3
Rationale: Increase in WBC counts is suggestive of appendicitis because of bacterial invasion and inflammation. Normal WBC count is 5, 000 – 10, 000/mm3. Other options are normal values.
44. Signs and symptoms include pain in the RLQ of the abdomen that may be localize at McBurney’s point. To relieve pain, Mr. Liu should assume which position?
a. Prone
b. Supine, stretched out
c. Sitting
d. Lying with legs drawn upl
Answer: D. Lying with legs drawn up
Rationale: Posturing by lying with legs drawn up can relax the abdominal muscle thus relieve pain.
45. After a few minutes, the pain suddenly stops without any intervention. Nurse Ray might suspect that:
a. the appendix is still distended
b. the appendix may have ruptured
c. an increased in intrathoracic pressure will occur
d. signs and symptoms of peritonitis occur
Answer: B. The appendix may have ruptured
Rationale: If a confirmed diagnosis is made and the pain suddenly without any intervention, the appendix may have ruptured; the pain is lessened because the appendix is no longer distended thus surgery is still needed.
Situation 10: Nurse Nico is caring to a 38-year-old female, G3P3 client who has been diagnosed with hemorrhoids.
46. Which of the following factors would most likely be a primary cause of her hemorrhoids?
a. Her age
b. Three vaginal delivery pregnancies
c. Her job as a school teacher
d. Varicosities in the legs
Answer: B. Three vaginal delivery pregnancies
Rationale: Hemorrhoids are associated with prolonged sitting, or standing, portal hypertension, chronic constipation and prolonged intra abdominal pressure as associated with pregnancy and the strain of vaginal delivery. Her job as a schoolteacher does not require prolong sitting or standing. Age and leg varicosities are not related to the development of hemorrhoids.
47. Client education should include minimizing client discomfort due to hemorrhoids. Nursing management should include:
a. Suggest to eat low roughage diet
b. Advise to wear silk undergarments
c. Avoid straining during defecation
d. Use of sitz bath for 30 minutes
Answer: C. Avoid strainining during defecation
Rationale: Straining can increase intra abdominal pressure. Health teachings also include: suggest to eat high roughage diet, wearing of cotton undergarments and use of sitz bath for 15 minutes.
48. The doctor orders for Witch Hazel 5 %. Nurse Nico knows that the action of this astringent is:
a. temporarily relieves pain, burning, and itching by numbing the nerve endings
b. causes coagulation (clumping) of proteins in the cells of the perianal skin or the lining of the anal canal
c. inhibits the growth of bacteria and other organisms
d. causes the outer layers of skin or other tissues to disintegrate
Answer: B. causes coagulation (clumping) of proteins in the cells of the perianal skin or the lining of the anal canal
Rationale: Option a are local anesthetics; c are antiseptics and d are keratolytics.
49. Which position would be ideal for the client in the early postoperative period after hemorrhoidectomy?
a. High Fowler’s
b. Supine
c. Side – lying
d. Trendelenburg’s
Answer: C. Side – lying
Rationale: Positioning in the early postoperative phase should avoid stress and pressure on the operative site. The prone and side – lying are ideal from a comfort perspective. A high Fowler’s or supine position will place pressure on the operative site and is not recommended. There is no need for trendelenburg’s position.
50. Nurse Nico instructs her client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy not to used sitz bath until at least 12 hours postoperatively to avoid which of the following complications?
a. Hemorrhage
b. Rectal Spasm
c. Urinary retention
d. Constipation
Answer: A. Hemorrhage
Rationale: Applying heat during the immediate postoperative period may cause hemorrhage at the surgical site. Moist heat may relieve rectal spasms after bowel movements. Urinary retention caused by reflex spasm may also be relieved by moist heat. Increasing fiber and fluid in the diet can help constipation.
100 Item Obstetrics-Maternal And Child Health Nursing Examination
DEGREE OF QUESTION DIFFICULTY
4 – Very hard question, 25% Chance of answering correctly
3 – Hard question, 50% Chance of answering correctly
2 – Moderately hard question, 75% of answering correctly
1 – Easy question, 99% will answer the question correctly
SITUATION : [ND89] Aling Julia, a 32 year old fish vendor from baranggay matahimik came to see you at the prenatal clinic. She brought with her all her three children. Maye, 1 year 6 months; Joy, 3 and Dan, 7 years old. She mentioned that she stopped taking oral contraceptives several months ago and now suspects she is pregnant. She cannot remember her LMP.
1. Which of the following would be useful in calculating Aling Julia's EDC? [3]
A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope
C. Increase pulse rate
D. Presence of edema
2. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test? [1]
A. Progesterone
B. HCG
C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen
3. With this pregnancy, Aling Julia is a [1]
A. P3 G3
B. Primigravida
C. P3 G4
D. P0 G3
4. In explaining the development of her baby, you identified in chronological order of growth of the fetus as it occurs in pregnancy as [1]
A. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
B. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
C. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
D. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant
5. Aling Julia states she is happy to be pregnant. Which behavior is elicited by her during your assessment that would lead you to think she is stressed? [3]
A. She told you about her drunk husband
B. She states she has very meager income from selling
C. She laughs at every advise you give even when its not funny
D. She has difficulty following instructions
6. When teaching Aling Julia about her pregnancy, you should include personal common discomforts. Which of the following is an indication for prompt professional supervision? [2]
A. Constipation and hemorrhoids
B. Backache
C. Facial edema
D. frequent urination
7. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for you to include in Aling Julia's prenatal teaching plan? [1]
A. Exercise is very tiresome, it should be avoided
B. Limit your food intake
C. Smoking has no harmful effect on the growth and development of fetus
D. Avoid unnecessary fatigue, rest periods should be included in you schedule
8. The best advise you can give to Aling Julia regarding prevention of varicosities is [3]
A. Raise the legs while in upright position and put it against the wall several times a day
B. Lay flat for most hours of the day
C. Use garters with nylon stocking
D. Wear support hose
9. In a 32 day menstrual cycle, ovulation usually occurs on the [2]
A. 14th day after menstruation
B. 18th day after menstruation
C. 20th day after menstruation
D. 24th day after menstruation
10. Placenta is the organ that provides exchange of nutrients and waste products between mother and fetus. This develops by [4]
A. First month
B. Third month
C. Fifth month
D. Seventh month
11. In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Julia, you know the minimum weight gain during pregnancy is [3]
A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk
C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk
12. The more accurate method of measuring fundal height is [2]
A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
C. Inches
D. Fingerbreadths
13. To determine fetal position using Leopold's maneuvers, the first maneuver is to [1]
A. Determine degree of cephalic flexion and engagement
B. Determine part of fetus presenting into pelvis
C. Locate the back,arms and legs
D. Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus
14. Aling julia has encouraged her husband to attend prenatal classes with her. During the prenatal class, the couple expressed fear of pain during labor and delivery. The use of touch and soothing voice often promotes comfort to the laboring patient. This physical intervention is effective because [2]
A. Pain perception is interrupted
B. Gate control fibers are open
C. It distracts the client away from the pain
D. Empathy is communicated by a caring person
15. Which of the following could be considered as a positive sign of pregnancy ? [1]
A. Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography
SITUATION : [FFC] Maternal and child health is the program of the department of health created to lessen the death of infants and mother in the philippines. [2]
16. What is the goal of this program?
A. Promote mother and infant health especially during the gravida stage
B. Training of local hilots
C. Direct supervision of midwives during home delivery
D. Health teaching to mother regarding proper newborn care
17. One philosophy of the maternal and child health nursing is [1]
A. All pregnancy experiences are the same for all woman
B. Culture and religious practices have little effect on pregnancy of a woman
C. Pregnancy is a part of the life cycle but provides no meaning
D. The father is as important as the mother
18. In maternal care, the PHN responsibility is [2]
A. To secure all information that would be needing in birth certificate
B. To protect the baby against tetanus neonatorum by immunizing the mother with DPT
C. To reach all pregnant woman
D. To assess nutritional status of existing children
19. This is use when rendering prenatal care in the rural health unit. It serves as a guide in Identification of risk factors [1]
A. Underfive clinic chart
B. Home based mother's record
C. Client list of mother under prenatal care
D. Target list of woman under TT vaccination
20. The schedule of prenatal visit in the RHU unit is [4]
A. Once from 1st up to 8th month, weekly on the 9th month
B. Twice in 1st and second trimester, weekly on third trimester
C. Once in each trimester, more frequent for those at risk
D. Frequent as possible to determine the presence of FHT each week
SITUATION : Knowledge of the menstrual cycle is important in maternal health nursing. The following questions pertains to the process of menstruation
21. Menarche occurs during the pubertal period, Which of the following occurs first in the development of female sex characteristics? [2]
A. Menarche
B. Accelerated Linear Growth
C. Breast development
D. Growth of pubic hair
22. Which gland is responsible for initiating the menstrual cycle? [3]
A. Ovaries
B. APG
C. PPG
D. Hypothalamus
23. The hormone that stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen is [1]
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH
24. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation? [2]
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH
25. When is the serum estrogen level highest in the menstrual cycle? [4]
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle
26. To correctly determine the day of ovulation, the nurse must [2]
A. Deduct 14 days at the mid of the cycle
B. Subtract two weeks at cycle's end
C. Add 7 days from mid of the cycle
D. Add 14 days from the end of the cycle
27. The serum progesterone is lowest during what day of the menstrual cycle? [4]
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle
28. How much blood is loss on the average during menstrual period? [4]
A. Half cup
B. 4 tablespoon
C. 3 ounces
D. 1/3 cup
29. Menstruation occurs because of which following mechanism? [2]
A. Increase level of estrogen and progesterone level
B. Degeneration of the corpus luteum
C. Increase vascularity of the endothelium
D. Surge of hormone progesterone
30. If the menstrual cycle of a woman is 35 day cycle, she will approximately [2]
A. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
B. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 21th day of her cycle
C. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
D. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 14th day to the 30th day of her cycle
SITUATION : Wide knowledge about different diagnostic tests during pregnancy is an essential arsenal for a nurse to be successful.
31. The Biparietal diameter of a fetus is considered matured if it is atleast [4]
A. 9.8 cm
B. 8.5 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 6 cm
32. Quickening is experienced first by multigravida clients. At what week of gestation do they start to experience quickening? [4]
A. 16th
B. 20th
C. 24th
D. 28th
33. Before the start of a non stress test, The FHR is 120 BPM. The mother ate the snack and the practitioner noticed an increase from 120 BPM to 135 BPM for 15 seconds. How would you read the result? [3]
A. Abnormal
B. Non reactive
C. Reactive
D. Inconclusive, needs repeat
34. When should the nurse expect to hear the FHR using a fetoscope? [4]
A. 2nd week
B. 8th week
C. 2nd month
D. 4th month
35. When should the nurse expect to hear FHR using doppler Ultrasound? [4]
A. 8th week
B. 8th month
C. 2nd week
D. 4th month
36. The mother asks, What does it means if her maternal serum alpha feto protein is 35 ng/ml? The nurse should answer [4]
A. It is normal
B. It is not normal
C. 35 ng/ml indicates chromosomal abberation
D. 35 ng/ml indicates neural tube defect
37. Which of the following mothers needs RHOGAM? [1]
A. RH + mother who delivered an RH - fetus
B. RH - mother who delivered an RH + fetus
C. RH + mother who delivered an RH + fetus
D. RH - mother who delivered an RH - fetus
38. Which family planning method is recommended by the department of health more than any other means of contraception? [4]
A. Fertility Awareness Method
B. Condom
C. Tubal Ligation
D. Abstinence
39. How much booster dose does tetanus toxoid vaccination for pregnant women has? [4]
A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
40. Baranggay pinoybsn.tk has 70,000 population. How much nurse is needed to service this population? [4]
A. 5
B. 7
C. 50
D. 70
SITUATION : [ND2I246] Reproductive health is the exercise of reproductive right with responsibility. A married couple has the responsibility to reproduce and procreate.
41. Which of the following is ONE of the goals of the reproductive health concept? [3]
A. To achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. To prevent specific RH problem through counseling
C. Provide care, treatment and rehabilitation
D. To practice RH as a way of life of every man and woman
42. Which of the following is NOT an element of the reproductive health? [4]
A. Maternal and child health and nutrition
B. Family planning
C. Prevention and management of abortion complication
D. Healthy sexual development and nutrition
43. In the international framework of RH, which one of the following is the ultimate goal? [3]
A. Women's health in reproduction
B. Attainment of optimum health
C. Achievement of women's status
D. Quality of life
44. Which one of the following is a determinant of RH affecting woman's ability to participate in social affairs? [3]
A. Gender issues
B. Socio-Economic condition
C. Cultural and psychosocial factors
D. Status of women
45. In the philippine RH Framework. which major factor affects RH status? [4]
A. Women's lower level of literacy
B. Health service delivery mechanism
C. Poor living conditions lead to illness
D. Commercial sex workers are exposed to AIDS/STD.
46. Which determinant of reproductive health advocates nutrition for better health promotion and maintain a healthful life? [4]
A. Socio-Economic conditions
B. Status of women
C. Social and gender issues
D. Biological, Cultural and Psychosocial factors
47. Which of the following is NOT a strategy of RH? [3]
A. Increase and improve contraceptive methods
B. Achieve reproductive intentions
C. Care provision focused on people with RH problems
D. Prevent specific RH problem through information dessemination
48. Which of the following is NOT a goal of RH? [3]
A. Achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. Avoid illness/diseases, injuries, disabilities related to sexuality and reproduction
C. Receive appropriate counseling and care of RH problems
D. Strengthen outreach activities and the referral system
49. What is the VISION of the RH? [2]
A. Attain QUALITY OF LIFE
B. Practice RH as a WAY OF LIFE
C. Prevent specific RH problem
D. Health in the hands of the filipino
SITUATION : [SORANGE19] Baby G, a 6 hours old newborn is admitted to the NICU because of low APGAR Score. His mother had a prolonged second stage of labor
50. Which of the following is the most important concept associated with all high risk newborn? [1]
A. Support the high-risk newborn's cardiopulmonary adaptation by maintaining adequate airway
B. Identify complications with early intervention in the high risk newborn to reduce morbidity and mortality
C. Assess the high risk newborn for any physical complications that will assist the parent with bonding
D. Support mother and significant others in their request toward adaptation to the high risk newborn
51. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a newborn with birth asphyxia? [1]
A. Hyperoxemia
B. Acidosis
C. Hypocapnia
D. Ketosis
52. When planning and implementing care for the newborn that has been successfully resuscitated, which of the following would be important to assess? [1]
A. Muscle flaccidity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Decreased intracranial pressure
D. Spontaneous respiration
SITUATION : [P-I/46] Nurses should be aware of the different reproductive problems.
53. When is the best time to achieve pregnancy? [2]
A. Midway between periods
B. Immediately after menses end
C. 14 days before the next period is expected
D. 14 days after the beginning of the next period
54. A factor in infertility maybe related to the PH of the vaginal canal. A medication that is ordered to alter the vaginal PH is: [2]
A. Estrogen therapy
B. Sulfur insufflations
C. Lactic acid douches
D. Na HCO3 Douches
55. A diagnostic test used to evaluate fertility is the postcoital test. It is best timed [2]
A. 1 week after ovulation
B. Immediately after menses
C. Just before the next menstrual period
D. Within 1 to 2 days of presumed ovulation
56. A tubal insufflation test is done to determine whether there is a tubal obstruction. Infertility caused by a defect in the tube is most often related to a [3]
A. Past infection
B. Fibroid Tumor
C. Congenital Anomaly
D. Previous injury to a tube
57. Which test is commonly used to determine the number, motility and activity of sperm is the [2]
A. Rubin test
B. Huhner test
C. Friedman test
D. Papanicolau test
58. In the female, Evaluation of the pelvic organs of reproduction is accomplished by [2]
A. Biopsy
B. Cystoscopy
C. Culdoscopy
D. Hysterosalpingogram
59. When is the fetal weight gain greatest? [3]
A. 1st trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. from 4th week up to 16th week of pregnancy
60. In fetal blood vessel, where is the oxygen content highest? [3]
A. Umbilical artery
B. Ductus Venosus
C. Ductus areteriosus
D. Pulmonary artery
61. The nurse is caring for a woman in labor. The woman is irritable, complains of nausea and vomits and has heavier show. The membranes rupture. The nurse understands that this indicates [1]
A. The woman is in transition stage of labor
B. The woman is having a complication and the doctor should be notified
C. Labor is slowing down and the woman may need oxytocin
D. The woman is emotionally distraught and needs assistance in dealing with labor
SITUATION : [J2I246] Katherine, a 32 year old primigravida at 39-40 weeks AOG was admitted to the labor room due to hypogastric and lumbo-sacral pains. IE revealed a fully dilated, fully effaced cervix. Station 0.
62. She is immediately transferred to the DR table. Which of the following conditions signify that delivery is near? [2]
I - A desire to defecate
II - Begins to bear down with uterine contraction
III - Perineum bulges
IV - Uterine contraction occur 2-3 minutes intervals at 50 seconds duration
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. II,III,IV
63. Artificial rupture of the membrane is done. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is the priority? [2]
A. High risk for infection related to membrane rupture
B. Potential for injury related to prolapse cord
C. Alteration in comfort related to increasing strength of uterine contraction
D. Anxiety related to unfamiliar procedure
64. Katherine complains of severe abdominal pain and back pain during contraction. Which two of the following measures will be MOST effective in reducing pain? [4]
I - Rubbing the back with a tennis ball
II- Effleurage
III-Imagery
IV-Breathing techniques
A. II,IV
B. II,III
C. I,IV
D. I,II
65. Lumbar epidural anesthesia is administered. Which of the following nursing responsibilities should be done immediately following procedure? [1]
A. Reposition from side to side
B. Administer oxygen
C. Increase IV fluid as indicated
D. Assess for maternal hypotension
66. Which is NOT the drug of choice for epidural anesthesia? [4]
A. Sensorcaine
B. Xylocaine
C. Ephedrine
D. Marcaine
SITUATION : [SORANGE217] Alpha, a 24 year old G4P3 at full term gestation is brought to the ER after a gush of fluid passes through here vagina while doing her holiday shopping.
67. She is brought to the triage unit. The FHT is noted to be 114 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first? [2]
A. Monitor FHT ever 15 minutes
B. Administer oxygen inhalation
C. Ask the charge nurse to notify the Obstetrician
D. Place her on the left lateral position
68. The nurse checks the perineum of alpha. Which of the following characteristic of the amniotic fluid would cause an alarm to the nurse? [1]
A. Greenish
B. Scantly
C. Colorless
D. Blood tinged
69. Alpha asks the nurse. "Why do I have to be on complete bed rest? I am not comfortable in this position." Which of the following response of the nurse is most appropriate? [3]
A. Keeping you on bed rest will prevent possible cord prolapse
B. Completed bed rest will prevent more amniotic fluid to escape
C. You need to save your energy so you will be strong enough to push later
D. Let us ask your obstetrician when she returns to check on you
70. Alpha wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal, the correct response is [4]
A. Twice
B. Thrice
C. Four times
D. 10-12 times
71. Upon examination by the obstetrician, he charted that Alpha is in the early stage of labor. Which of the following is true in this state? [1]
A. Self-focused
B. Effacement is 100%
C. Last for 2 hours
D. Cervical dilation 1-3 cm
SITUATION : Maternal and child health nursing a core concept of providing health in the community. Mastery of MCH Nursing is a quality all nurse should possess.
72. When should be the 2nd visit of a pregnant mother to the RHU? [2]
A. Before getting pregnant
B. As early in pregnancy
C. Second trimester
D. Third trimester
73. Which of the following is NOT a standard prenatal physical examination? [1]
A. Neck examination for goiter
B. Examination of the palms of the hands for pallor
C. Edema examination of the face hands, and lower extremeties
D. Examination of the legs for varicosities
74. Which of the following is NOT a basic prenatal service delivery done in the BHS? [2]
A. Oral / Dental check up
B. Laboratory examination
C. Treatment of diseases
D. Iron supplementation
75. How many days and how much dosage will the IRON supplementation be taken? [4]
A. 365 days / 300 mg
B. 210 days / 200 mg
C. 100 days/ 100mg
D. 50 days / 50 mg
76. When should the iron supplementation starts and when should it ends? [4]
A. 5th month of pregnancy to 2nd month post partum
B. 1st month of pregnancy to 5th month post partum
C. As early in pregnancy up to 9th month of pregnancy
D. From 1st trimester up to 6 weeks post partum
77. In malaria infested area, how is chloroquine given to pregnant women? [4]
A. 300 mg / twice a month for 9 months
B. 200 mg / once a week for 5 months
C. 150 mg / twice a week for the duration of pregnancy
D. 100 mg / twice a week for the last trimester of pregnancy
78. Which of the following mothers are qualified for home delivery? [2]
A. Pre term
B. 6th pregnancy
C. Has a history of hemorrhage last pregnancy
D. 2nd pregnancy, Has a history of 20 hours of labor last pregnancy.
79. Which of the following is not included on the 3 Cs of delivery? [2]
A. Clean Surface
B. Clean Hands
C. Clean Equipments
D. Clean Cord
80. Which of the following is unnecessary equipment to be included in the home delivery kit? [4]
A. Boiled razor blade
B. 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
C. Flashlight
D. Rectal and oral thermometer
SITUATION : [NBLUE166] Pillar is admitted to the hospital with the following signs : Contractions coming every 10 minutes, lasting 30 seconds and causing little discomfort. Intact membranes without any bloody shows. Stable vital signs. FHR = 130bpm. Examination reveals cervix is 3 cm dilated with vertex presenting at minus 1 station.
81. On the basis of the data provided above, You can conclude the pillar is in the [1]
A. In false labor
B. In the active phase of labor
C. In the latent phase of labor
D. In the transitional phase of labor
82. Pitocin drip is started on Pilar. Possible side effects of pitocin administration include all of the following except [3]
A. Diuresis
B. Hypertension
C. Water intoxication
D. Cerebral hemorrhage
83. The normal range of FHR is approximately [3]
A. 90 to 140 bpm
B. 120 to 160 bpm
C. 100 to 140 bpm
D. 140 to 180 bpm
84. A negative 1 [-1] station means that [1]
A. Fetus is crowning
B. Fetus is floating
C. Fetus is engaged
D. Fetus is at the ischial spine
85. Which of the following is characteristics of false labor [1]
A. Bloody show
B. Contraction that are regular and increase in frequency and duration
C. Contraction are felt in the back and radiates towards the abdomen
D. None of the above
86. Who's Theory of labor pain that states that PAIN in labor is cause by FEAR [4]
A. Bradley
B. Simpson
C. Lamaze
D. Dick-Read
87. Which sign would alert the nurse that Pillar is entering the second stage of labor? [1]
A. Increase frequency and intensity of contraction
B. Perineum bulges and anal orifice dilates
C. Effacement of internal OS is 100%
D. Vulva encircles the largest diameter of presenting part
88. Nursing care during the second stage of labor should include [1]
A. Careful evaluation of prenatal history
B. Coach breathing, Bear down with each contraction and encourage patient.
C. Shave the perineum
D. Administer enema to the patient
SITUATION : [NBLUE170] Baby boy perez was delivered spontaneously following a term pregnancy. Apgar scores are 8 and 9 respectively. Routine procedures are carried out.
89. When is the APGAR Score taken? [1]
A. Immediately after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
B. At 5 minutes after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
C. At 1 minute after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
D. Immediately after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
90. The best way to position a newboarn during the first week of life is to lay him [3]
A. Prone with head slightly elevated
B. On his back, flat
C. On his side with his head flat on bed
D. On his back with head slightly elevated
91. Baby boy perez has a large sebaceous glands on his nose, chin, and forehead. These are known as [1]
A. Milia
B. Lanugo
C. Hemangiomas
D. Mongolian spots
92. Baby boy perez must be carefully observed for the first 24 hours for [2]
A. Respiratory distress
B. Duration of cry
C. Frequency of voiding
D. Range in body temperature
93. According to the WHO , when should the mother starts breastfeeding the infant? [4]
A. Within 30 minutes after birth
B. Within 12 hours after birth
C. Within a day after birth
D. After infant's condition stabilizes
94. What is the BEST and most accurate method of measuring the medication dosage for infants and children? [3]
A. Weight
B. Height
C. Nomogram
D. Weight and Height
95. The first postpartum visit should be done by the mother within [4]
A. 24 hours
B. 3 days
C. a week
D. a month
96. The major cause of maternal mortality in the philippines is [3]
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypertension
D. Other complications related to labor,delivery and puerperium
97. According to the WHO, what should be the composition of a commercialized Oral rehydration salt solution? [4]
A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 10 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 10 g.
98. In preparing ORESOL at home, The correct composition recommnded by the DOH is [4]
A. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
B. 1 glass of water, 2 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
C. 1 glass of water, 3 pinch of salt and 4 tsp of sugar
D. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 1 tsp of sugar
99. Milk code is a law that prohibits milk commercialization or artificial feeding for up to 2 years. Which law provides its legal basis? [4]
A. Senate bill 1044
B. RA 7600
C. Presidential Proclamation 147
D. EO 51
100. A 40 year old mother in her third trimester should avoid [4]
A. Traveling
B. Climbing
C. Smoking
D. Exercising
4 – Very hard question, 25% Chance of answering correctly
3 – Hard question, 50% Chance of answering correctly
2 – Moderately hard question, 75% of answering correctly
1 – Easy question, 99% will answer the question correctly
SITUATION : [ND89] Aling Julia, a 32 year old fish vendor from baranggay matahimik came to see you at the prenatal clinic. She brought with her all her three children. Maye, 1 year 6 months; Joy, 3 and Dan, 7 years old. She mentioned that she stopped taking oral contraceptives several months ago and now suspects she is pregnant. She cannot remember her LMP.
1. Which of the following would be useful in calculating Aling Julia's EDC? [3]
A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope
C. Increase pulse rate
D. Presence of edema
2. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test? [1]
A. Progesterone
B. HCG
C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen
3. With this pregnancy, Aling Julia is a [1]
A. P3 G3
B. Primigravida
C. P3 G4
D. P0 G3
4. In explaining the development of her baby, you identified in chronological order of growth of the fetus as it occurs in pregnancy as [1]
A. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
B. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
C. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
D. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant
5. Aling Julia states she is happy to be pregnant. Which behavior is elicited by her during your assessment that would lead you to think she is stressed? [3]
A. She told you about her drunk husband
B. She states she has very meager income from selling
C. She laughs at every advise you give even when its not funny
D. She has difficulty following instructions
6. When teaching Aling Julia about her pregnancy, you should include personal common discomforts. Which of the following is an indication for prompt professional supervision? [2]
A. Constipation and hemorrhoids
B. Backache
C. Facial edema
D. frequent urination
7. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for you to include in Aling Julia's prenatal teaching plan? [1]
A. Exercise is very tiresome, it should be avoided
B. Limit your food intake
C. Smoking has no harmful effect on the growth and development of fetus
D. Avoid unnecessary fatigue, rest periods should be included in you schedule
8. The best advise you can give to Aling Julia regarding prevention of varicosities is [3]
A. Raise the legs while in upright position and put it against the wall several times a day
B. Lay flat for most hours of the day
C. Use garters with nylon stocking
D. Wear support hose
9. In a 32 day menstrual cycle, ovulation usually occurs on the [2]
A. 14th day after menstruation
B. 18th day after menstruation
C. 20th day after menstruation
D. 24th day after menstruation
10. Placenta is the organ that provides exchange of nutrients and waste products between mother and fetus. This develops by [4]
A. First month
B. Third month
C. Fifth month
D. Seventh month
11. In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Julia, you know the minimum weight gain during pregnancy is [3]
A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk
C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk
12. The more accurate method of measuring fundal height is [2]
A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
C. Inches
D. Fingerbreadths
13. To determine fetal position using Leopold's maneuvers, the first maneuver is to [1]
A. Determine degree of cephalic flexion and engagement
B. Determine part of fetus presenting into pelvis
C. Locate the back,arms and legs
D. Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus
14. Aling julia has encouraged her husband to attend prenatal classes with her. During the prenatal class, the couple expressed fear of pain during labor and delivery. The use of touch and soothing voice often promotes comfort to the laboring patient. This physical intervention is effective because [2]
A. Pain perception is interrupted
B. Gate control fibers are open
C. It distracts the client away from the pain
D. Empathy is communicated by a caring person
15. Which of the following could be considered as a positive sign of pregnancy ? [1]
A. Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography
SITUATION : [FFC] Maternal and child health is the program of the department of health created to lessen the death of infants and mother in the philippines. [2]
16. What is the goal of this program?
A. Promote mother and infant health especially during the gravida stage
B. Training of local hilots
C. Direct supervision of midwives during home delivery
D. Health teaching to mother regarding proper newborn care
17. One philosophy of the maternal and child health nursing is [1]
A. All pregnancy experiences are the same for all woman
B. Culture and religious practices have little effect on pregnancy of a woman
C. Pregnancy is a part of the life cycle but provides no meaning
D. The father is as important as the mother
18. In maternal care, the PHN responsibility is [2]
A. To secure all information that would be needing in birth certificate
B. To protect the baby against tetanus neonatorum by immunizing the mother with DPT
C. To reach all pregnant woman
D. To assess nutritional status of existing children
19. This is use when rendering prenatal care in the rural health unit. It serves as a guide in Identification of risk factors [1]
A. Underfive clinic chart
B. Home based mother's record
C. Client list of mother under prenatal care
D. Target list of woman under TT vaccination
20. The schedule of prenatal visit in the RHU unit is [4]
A. Once from 1st up to 8th month, weekly on the 9th month
B. Twice in 1st and second trimester, weekly on third trimester
C. Once in each trimester, more frequent for those at risk
D. Frequent as possible to determine the presence of FHT each week
SITUATION : Knowledge of the menstrual cycle is important in maternal health nursing. The following questions pertains to the process of menstruation
21. Menarche occurs during the pubertal period, Which of the following occurs first in the development of female sex characteristics? [2]
A. Menarche
B. Accelerated Linear Growth
C. Breast development
D. Growth of pubic hair
22. Which gland is responsible for initiating the menstrual cycle? [3]
A. Ovaries
B. APG
C. PPG
D. Hypothalamus
23. The hormone that stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen is [1]
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH
24. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation? [2]
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH
25. When is the serum estrogen level highest in the menstrual cycle? [4]
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle
26. To correctly determine the day of ovulation, the nurse must [2]
A. Deduct 14 days at the mid of the cycle
B. Subtract two weeks at cycle's end
C. Add 7 days from mid of the cycle
D. Add 14 days from the end of the cycle
27. The serum progesterone is lowest during what day of the menstrual cycle? [4]
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle
28. How much blood is loss on the average during menstrual period? [4]
A. Half cup
B. 4 tablespoon
C. 3 ounces
D. 1/3 cup
29. Menstruation occurs because of which following mechanism? [2]
A. Increase level of estrogen and progesterone level
B. Degeneration of the corpus luteum
C. Increase vascularity of the endothelium
D. Surge of hormone progesterone
30. If the menstrual cycle of a woman is 35 day cycle, she will approximately [2]
A. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
B. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 21th day of her cycle
C. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
D. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 14th day to the 30th day of her cycle
SITUATION : Wide knowledge about different diagnostic tests during pregnancy is an essential arsenal for a nurse to be successful.
31. The Biparietal diameter of a fetus is considered matured if it is atleast [4]
A. 9.8 cm
B. 8.5 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 6 cm
32. Quickening is experienced first by multigravida clients. At what week of gestation do they start to experience quickening? [4]
A. 16th
B. 20th
C. 24th
D. 28th
33. Before the start of a non stress test, The FHR is 120 BPM. The mother ate the snack and the practitioner noticed an increase from 120 BPM to 135 BPM for 15 seconds. How would you read the result? [3]
A. Abnormal
B. Non reactive
C. Reactive
D. Inconclusive, needs repeat
34. When should the nurse expect to hear the FHR using a fetoscope? [4]
A. 2nd week
B. 8th week
C. 2nd month
D. 4th month
35. When should the nurse expect to hear FHR using doppler Ultrasound? [4]
A. 8th week
B. 8th month
C. 2nd week
D. 4th month
36. The mother asks, What does it means if her maternal serum alpha feto protein is 35 ng/ml? The nurse should answer [4]
A. It is normal
B. It is not normal
C. 35 ng/ml indicates chromosomal abberation
D. 35 ng/ml indicates neural tube defect
37. Which of the following mothers needs RHOGAM? [1]
A. RH + mother who delivered an RH - fetus
B. RH - mother who delivered an RH + fetus
C. RH + mother who delivered an RH + fetus
D. RH - mother who delivered an RH - fetus
38. Which family planning method is recommended by the department of health more than any other means of contraception? [4]
A. Fertility Awareness Method
B. Condom
C. Tubal Ligation
D. Abstinence
39. How much booster dose does tetanus toxoid vaccination for pregnant women has? [4]
A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
40. Baranggay pinoybsn.tk has 70,000 population. How much nurse is needed to service this population? [4]
A. 5
B. 7
C. 50
D. 70
SITUATION : [ND2I246] Reproductive health is the exercise of reproductive right with responsibility. A married couple has the responsibility to reproduce and procreate.
41. Which of the following is ONE of the goals of the reproductive health concept? [3]
A. To achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. To prevent specific RH problem through counseling
C. Provide care, treatment and rehabilitation
D. To practice RH as a way of life of every man and woman
42. Which of the following is NOT an element of the reproductive health? [4]
A. Maternal and child health and nutrition
B. Family planning
C. Prevention and management of abortion complication
D. Healthy sexual development and nutrition
43. In the international framework of RH, which one of the following is the ultimate goal? [3]
A. Women's health in reproduction
B. Attainment of optimum health
C. Achievement of women's status
D. Quality of life
44. Which one of the following is a determinant of RH affecting woman's ability to participate in social affairs? [3]
A. Gender issues
B. Socio-Economic condition
C. Cultural and psychosocial factors
D. Status of women
45. In the philippine RH Framework. which major factor affects RH status? [4]
A. Women's lower level of literacy
B. Health service delivery mechanism
C. Poor living conditions lead to illness
D. Commercial sex workers are exposed to AIDS/STD.
46. Which determinant of reproductive health advocates nutrition for better health promotion and maintain a healthful life? [4]
A. Socio-Economic conditions
B. Status of women
C. Social and gender issues
D. Biological, Cultural and Psychosocial factors
47. Which of the following is NOT a strategy of RH? [3]
A. Increase and improve contraceptive methods
B. Achieve reproductive intentions
C. Care provision focused on people with RH problems
D. Prevent specific RH problem through information dessemination
48. Which of the following is NOT a goal of RH? [3]
A. Achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. Avoid illness/diseases, injuries, disabilities related to sexuality and reproduction
C. Receive appropriate counseling and care of RH problems
D. Strengthen outreach activities and the referral system
49. What is the VISION of the RH? [2]
A. Attain QUALITY OF LIFE
B. Practice RH as a WAY OF LIFE
C. Prevent specific RH problem
D. Health in the hands of the filipino
SITUATION : [SORANGE19] Baby G, a 6 hours old newborn is admitted to the NICU because of low APGAR Score. His mother had a prolonged second stage of labor
50. Which of the following is the most important concept associated with all high risk newborn? [1]
A. Support the high-risk newborn's cardiopulmonary adaptation by maintaining adequate airway
B. Identify complications with early intervention in the high risk newborn to reduce morbidity and mortality
C. Assess the high risk newborn for any physical complications that will assist the parent with bonding
D. Support mother and significant others in their request toward adaptation to the high risk newborn
51. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a newborn with birth asphyxia? [1]
A. Hyperoxemia
B. Acidosis
C. Hypocapnia
D. Ketosis
52. When planning and implementing care for the newborn that has been successfully resuscitated, which of the following would be important to assess? [1]
A. Muscle flaccidity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Decreased intracranial pressure
D. Spontaneous respiration
SITUATION : [P-I/46] Nurses should be aware of the different reproductive problems.
53. When is the best time to achieve pregnancy? [2]
A. Midway between periods
B. Immediately after menses end
C. 14 days before the next period is expected
D. 14 days after the beginning of the next period
54. A factor in infertility maybe related to the PH of the vaginal canal. A medication that is ordered to alter the vaginal PH is: [2]
A. Estrogen therapy
B. Sulfur insufflations
C. Lactic acid douches
D. Na HCO3 Douches
55. A diagnostic test used to evaluate fertility is the postcoital test. It is best timed [2]
A. 1 week after ovulation
B. Immediately after menses
C. Just before the next menstrual period
D. Within 1 to 2 days of presumed ovulation
56. A tubal insufflation test is done to determine whether there is a tubal obstruction. Infertility caused by a defect in the tube is most often related to a [3]
A. Past infection
B. Fibroid Tumor
C. Congenital Anomaly
D. Previous injury to a tube
57. Which test is commonly used to determine the number, motility and activity of sperm is the [2]
A. Rubin test
B. Huhner test
C. Friedman test
D. Papanicolau test
58. In the female, Evaluation of the pelvic organs of reproduction is accomplished by [2]
A. Biopsy
B. Cystoscopy
C. Culdoscopy
D. Hysterosalpingogram
59. When is the fetal weight gain greatest? [3]
A. 1st trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. from 4th week up to 16th week of pregnancy
60. In fetal blood vessel, where is the oxygen content highest? [3]
A. Umbilical artery
B. Ductus Venosus
C. Ductus areteriosus
D. Pulmonary artery
61. The nurse is caring for a woman in labor. The woman is irritable, complains of nausea and vomits and has heavier show. The membranes rupture. The nurse understands that this indicates [1]
A. The woman is in transition stage of labor
B. The woman is having a complication and the doctor should be notified
C. Labor is slowing down and the woman may need oxytocin
D. The woman is emotionally distraught and needs assistance in dealing with labor
SITUATION : [J2I246] Katherine, a 32 year old primigravida at 39-40 weeks AOG was admitted to the labor room due to hypogastric and lumbo-sacral pains. IE revealed a fully dilated, fully effaced cervix. Station 0.
62. She is immediately transferred to the DR table. Which of the following conditions signify that delivery is near? [2]
I - A desire to defecate
II - Begins to bear down with uterine contraction
III - Perineum bulges
IV - Uterine contraction occur 2-3 minutes intervals at 50 seconds duration
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. II,III,IV
63. Artificial rupture of the membrane is done. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is the priority? [2]
A. High risk for infection related to membrane rupture
B. Potential for injury related to prolapse cord
C. Alteration in comfort related to increasing strength of uterine contraction
D. Anxiety related to unfamiliar procedure
64. Katherine complains of severe abdominal pain and back pain during contraction. Which two of the following measures will be MOST effective in reducing pain? [4]
I - Rubbing the back with a tennis ball
II- Effleurage
III-Imagery
IV-Breathing techniques
A. II,IV
B. II,III
C. I,IV
D. I,II
65. Lumbar epidural anesthesia is administered. Which of the following nursing responsibilities should be done immediately following procedure? [1]
A. Reposition from side to side
B. Administer oxygen
C. Increase IV fluid as indicated
D. Assess for maternal hypotension
66. Which is NOT the drug of choice for epidural anesthesia? [4]
A. Sensorcaine
B. Xylocaine
C. Ephedrine
D. Marcaine
SITUATION : [SORANGE217] Alpha, a 24 year old G4P3 at full term gestation is brought to the ER after a gush of fluid passes through here vagina while doing her holiday shopping.
67. She is brought to the triage unit. The FHT is noted to be 114 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first? [2]
A. Monitor FHT ever 15 minutes
B. Administer oxygen inhalation
C. Ask the charge nurse to notify the Obstetrician
D. Place her on the left lateral position
68. The nurse checks the perineum of alpha. Which of the following characteristic of the amniotic fluid would cause an alarm to the nurse? [1]
A. Greenish
B. Scantly
C. Colorless
D. Blood tinged
69. Alpha asks the nurse. "Why do I have to be on complete bed rest? I am not comfortable in this position." Which of the following response of the nurse is most appropriate? [3]
A. Keeping you on bed rest will prevent possible cord prolapse
B. Completed bed rest will prevent more amniotic fluid to escape
C. You need to save your energy so you will be strong enough to push later
D. Let us ask your obstetrician when she returns to check on you
70. Alpha wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal, the correct response is [4]
A. Twice
B. Thrice
C. Four times
D. 10-12 times
71. Upon examination by the obstetrician, he charted that Alpha is in the early stage of labor. Which of the following is true in this state? [1]
A. Self-focused
B. Effacement is 100%
C. Last for 2 hours
D. Cervical dilation 1-3 cm
SITUATION : Maternal and child health nursing a core concept of providing health in the community. Mastery of MCH Nursing is a quality all nurse should possess.
72. When should be the 2nd visit of a pregnant mother to the RHU? [2]
A. Before getting pregnant
B. As early in pregnancy
C. Second trimester
D. Third trimester
73. Which of the following is NOT a standard prenatal physical examination? [1]
A. Neck examination for goiter
B. Examination of the palms of the hands for pallor
C. Edema examination of the face hands, and lower extremeties
D. Examination of the legs for varicosities
74. Which of the following is NOT a basic prenatal service delivery done in the BHS? [2]
A. Oral / Dental check up
B. Laboratory examination
C. Treatment of diseases
D. Iron supplementation
75. How many days and how much dosage will the IRON supplementation be taken? [4]
A. 365 days / 300 mg
B. 210 days / 200 mg
C. 100 days/ 100mg
D. 50 days / 50 mg
76. When should the iron supplementation starts and when should it ends? [4]
A. 5th month of pregnancy to 2nd month post partum
B. 1st month of pregnancy to 5th month post partum
C. As early in pregnancy up to 9th month of pregnancy
D. From 1st trimester up to 6 weeks post partum
77. In malaria infested area, how is chloroquine given to pregnant women? [4]
A. 300 mg / twice a month for 9 months
B. 200 mg / once a week for 5 months
C. 150 mg / twice a week for the duration of pregnancy
D. 100 mg / twice a week for the last trimester of pregnancy
78. Which of the following mothers are qualified for home delivery? [2]
A. Pre term
B. 6th pregnancy
C. Has a history of hemorrhage last pregnancy
D. 2nd pregnancy, Has a history of 20 hours of labor last pregnancy.
79. Which of the following is not included on the 3 Cs of delivery? [2]
A. Clean Surface
B. Clean Hands
C. Clean Equipments
D. Clean Cord
80. Which of the following is unnecessary equipment to be included in the home delivery kit? [4]
A. Boiled razor blade
B. 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
C. Flashlight
D. Rectal and oral thermometer
SITUATION : [NBLUE166] Pillar is admitted to the hospital with the following signs : Contractions coming every 10 minutes, lasting 30 seconds and causing little discomfort. Intact membranes without any bloody shows. Stable vital signs. FHR = 130bpm. Examination reveals cervix is 3 cm dilated with vertex presenting at minus 1 station.
81. On the basis of the data provided above, You can conclude the pillar is in the [1]
A. In false labor
B. In the active phase of labor
C. In the latent phase of labor
D. In the transitional phase of labor
82. Pitocin drip is started on Pilar. Possible side effects of pitocin administration include all of the following except [3]
A. Diuresis
B. Hypertension
C. Water intoxication
D. Cerebral hemorrhage
83. The normal range of FHR is approximately [3]
A. 90 to 140 bpm
B. 120 to 160 bpm
C. 100 to 140 bpm
D. 140 to 180 bpm
84. A negative 1 [-1] station means that [1]
A. Fetus is crowning
B. Fetus is floating
C. Fetus is engaged
D. Fetus is at the ischial spine
85. Which of the following is characteristics of false labor [1]
A. Bloody show
B. Contraction that are regular and increase in frequency and duration
C. Contraction are felt in the back and radiates towards the abdomen
D. None of the above
86. Who's Theory of labor pain that states that PAIN in labor is cause by FEAR [4]
A. Bradley
B. Simpson
C. Lamaze
D. Dick-Read
87. Which sign would alert the nurse that Pillar is entering the second stage of labor? [1]
A. Increase frequency and intensity of contraction
B. Perineum bulges and anal orifice dilates
C. Effacement of internal OS is 100%
D. Vulva encircles the largest diameter of presenting part
88. Nursing care during the second stage of labor should include [1]
A. Careful evaluation of prenatal history
B. Coach breathing, Bear down with each contraction and encourage patient.
C. Shave the perineum
D. Administer enema to the patient
SITUATION : [NBLUE170] Baby boy perez was delivered spontaneously following a term pregnancy. Apgar scores are 8 and 9 respectively. Routine procedures are carried out.
89. When is the APGAR Score taken? [1]
A. Immediately after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
B. At 5 minutes after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
C. At 1 minute after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
D. Immediately after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
90. The best way to position a newboarn during the first week of life is to lay him [3]
A. Prone with head slightly elevated
B. On his back, flat
C. On his side with his head flat on bed
D. On his back with head slightly elevated
91. Baby boy perez has a large sebaceous glands on his nose, chin, and forehead. These are known as [1]
A. Milia
B. Lanugo
C. Hemangiomas
D. Mongolian spots
92. Baby boy perez must be carefully observed for the first 24 hours for [2]
A. Respiratory distress
B. Duration of cry
C. Frequency of voiding
D. Range in body temperature
93. According to the WHO , when should the mother starts breastfeeding the infant? [4]
A. Within 30 minutes after birth
B. Within 12 hours after birth
C. Within a day after birth
D. After infant's condition stabilizes
94. What is the BEST and most accurate method of measuring the medication dosage for infants and children? [3]
A. Weight
B. Height
C. Nomogram
D. Weight and Height
95. The first postpartum visit should be done by the mother within [4]
A. 24 hours
B. 3 days
C. a week
D. a month
96. The major cause of maternal mortality in the philippines is [3]
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypertension
D. Other complications related to labor,delivery and puerperium
97. According to the WHO, what should be the composition of a commercialized Oral rehydration salt solution? [4]
A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 10 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 10 g.
98. In preparing ORESOL at home, The correct composition recommnded by the DOH is [4]
A. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
B. 1 glass of water, 2 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
C. 1 glass of water, 3 pinch of salt and 4 tsp of sugar
D. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 1 tsp of sugar
99. Milk code is a law that prohibits milk commercialization or artificial feeding for up to 2 years. Which law provides its legal basis? [4]
A. Senate bill 1044
B. RA 7600
C. Presidential Proclamation 147
D. EO 51
100. A 40 year old mother in her third trimester should avoid [4]
A. Traveling
B. Climbing
C. Smoking
D. Exercising
100 Item Obstetrics-Maternal And Child Health Nursing Examination Answers and Rationale
DEGREE OF QUESTION DIFFICULTY
4 – Very hard question, 25% Chance of answering correctly
3 – Hard question, 50% Chance of answering correctly
2 – Moderately hard question, 75% of answering correctly1 – Easy question, 99% will answer the question correctly
SITUATION : [ND89] Aling Julia, a 32 year old fish vendor from baranggay matahimik came to see you at the prenatal clinic. She brought with her all her three children. Maye, 1 year 6 months; Joy, 3 and Dan, 7 years old. She mentioned that she stopped taking oral contraceptives several months ago and now suspects she is pregnant. She cannot remember her LMP.
1. Which of the following would be useful in calculating Aling Julia's EDC? [3]
A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope
C. Increase pulse rate
D. Presence of edema
* The answer of some people is A because they say linea negra appears at 2nd trimester. Appearance of Linea negra is not the same with all women. Some will have it as early as first trimester while other on the 2nd trimester. It is very subjective and non normative.
However, First FHT by fetoscope is UNIVERSAL and it is arbitrarily accepted that it starts at the 4th month of gestation. Therefore, If I heard the First FHT by fetoscope, I can say that Aling Julia's EDC is at 4th month and the EDC will be around 5 months from now.Pulse rate and Edema will never suggest the estimated date of confinement nor age of gestation.
2. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test? [1]
A. Progesterone
B. HCG
C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen
* HCG is responsible for positive pregnancy test. But it is NOT a positive sign of pregnancy. Only PROBABLE. Purpose of HCG is to maintain the secretion of progestrone by the corpus luteum. It will deteriorate by 2nd trimester as the placenta resumes its funciton. HCG is also use to stimulate descend of the testes in case of cryptorchidism or undescended testes. HCG peaks at 10 weeks then decline for the rest of the pregnancy. Non pregnant females will have less than 5 mIU/ml and can reach up to 100,000 mIU/ml in pregnant women. By the way, undescended testes repair is done when the child is 1 year old according to Lippinncots, the doctor will try to wait baka kasi bumaba pa before they do surgery.
3. With this pregnancy, Aling Julia is a [1]
A. P3 G3
B. Primigravida
C. P3 G4
D. P0 G3
* She has 3 children, so para 3. Since she is pregnant, this is her 4th gravida. Remember that even if the pregancy is beyond the age of viability [ >7 months ] consider it as PARA and not GRAVIDA as long as the baby is still inside the uterus. A common error of the old nurses in a puericulture center where I dutied in is that they count the child inside the mother's womb as GRAVIDA when it is greater than 7 months! [ kawawang nanay, mali na ang home based mothers record mo ] I tried to correct it but they still INSISTED. I read pillitteri thinking that I might be wrong nakakahiya naman... but I was right.
4. In explaining the development of her baby, you identified in chronological order of growth of the fetus as it occurs in pregnancy as [1]
A. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
B. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
C. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
D. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant
* The Ovum is the egg cell from the mother, the sperm will fertilize it to form a zygote. This usually happens in the AMPULLA or the distal third of the fallopian tube. Hyalorunidase is secreted by the sperm to dissolve the outer memberane of the ovum. The zygote now containes 46 chromosomes. 23 from each germ cell. The zygote is now termed as an embryo once it has been implanted. Implantation takes 3-4 days. When the embryo reach 8th weeks, it is now termed as a FETUS until it has been delivered and then, neonate then infant.
5. Aling Julia states she is happy to be pregnant. Which behavior is elicited by her during your assessment that would lead you to think she is stressed? [3]
A. She told you about her drunk husband
B. She states she has very meager income from selling
C. She laughs at every advise you give even when its not funny
D. She has difficulty following instructions
* Stressed is manifested in different ways and one of them, is difficulty following instructions. Telling you that her husband is drunk and has meager income from selling is not enough for you to conclude she is stressed. Assessment is always based on factual and specific manifestations. A diagnosis is made from either ACTUAL or POTENTIAL/RISK problems. A and B are both potential problems, but not actual like D. C is automatically eliminated first because laughing is not indicative of stress.
6. When teaching Aling Julia about her pregnancy, you should include personal common discomforts. Which of the following is an indication for prompt professional supervision? [2]
A. Constipation and hemorrhoids
B. Backache
C. Facial edema
D. frequent urination
*Facial edema is NOT NORMAL. Facial edema is one sign of MILD PRE ECLAMPSIA and prompt professional supervision is needed to lower down the client's blood pressure. Blood pressure in Mild Pre Eclampsia is around 140/90 and 160/110 in severe. Treatment involves bed rest, Magnesium sulfate, Hydralazine, Diazoxide and Diazepam [ usually a combination of Magsul + Apresoline [ Hydralazine ] ] Calcium gluconate is always at the client's bed side when magnesium toxicity occurs. It works by exchanging Calcium ions for magnesium ions. A,B and D are all physiologic change in pregnancy that do not need prompt professional supervision. Frequent urination will disappear as soon as the pressure of the uterus is released against the bladder and as soon as the client's blood volume has returned to normal. Backache is a common complaint of women with an OCCIPUT POSTERIOR presentation due to pressure on the back. Intervention includes pelvic rocking or running a tennis ball at the client's back. Constipation and hemorrhoids are relieved by increasing fluid intake and hot sitz bath.
7. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for you to include in Aling Julia's prenatal teaching plan? [1]
A. Exercise is very tiresome, it should be avoided
B. Limit your food intake
C. Smoking has no harmful effect on the growth and development of fetus
D. Avoid unnecessary fatigue, rest periods should be included in you schedule
* Exercise is not avoided in pregnancy, therfore eliminate A. Food is never limited in pregnancy. Calories are even increased by around 300 cal a day as well as vitamins and minerals. Smoking, alcohol and drug use are avoided for the rest of the pregnancy because of their harmful effects on the growth and development of the fetus. Rest period and avoiding unecessary fatigue is one of the pillars in health teaching of the pregnant client.
8. The best advise you can give to Aling Julia regarding prevention of varicosities is [3]
A. Raise the legs while in upright position and put it against the wall several times a day
B. Lay flat for most hours of the day
C. Use garters with nylon stocking
D. Wear support hose
* A thigh high stocking or a support hose WORN BEFORE GETTING UP in the morning is effective in prevention of varicosities. Stocking should have NO GARTERS because it impedes blood flow, they should be made of COTTON not nylon to allow the skin to breathe. Lying flat most of the day WILL PREVENT VARICOSITIES but will not be helpful for the client's overall health and function. Raising the legs and putting it against the wall will still create pressure in the legs.
9. In a 32 day menstrual cycle, ovulation usually occurs on the [2]
A. 14th day after menstruation
B. 18th day after menstruation
C. 20th day after menstruation
D. 24th day after menstruation
* To get the day of ovulation, A diary is made for around 6 months to determine the number of days of menstrual cycle [ from onset of mens to the next onset of mens ] and the average is taken from that cycles. 14 days are subtracted from the total days of the menstrual cycle. This signifies the ovulation day. A couple would abstain having sex 5 days before and 5 days after the ovulation day. Therefore, a 32 day cycle minus 14 days equals 18, hence... ovulation occurs at the 18th day.
10. Placenta is the organ that provides exchange of nutrients and waste products between mother and fetus. This develops by [4]
A. First month
B. Third month
C. Fifth month
D. Seventh month
* The placenta is formed at around 3 months. It is a latin word for PANCAKE because of it's appearance. It arises from the trophoblast from the chorionic villi and decidua basalis. It functions as the fetal lungs, kidney, GI tract and an endocrine organ.
11. In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Julia, you know the minimum weight gain during pregnancy is [3]
A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk
C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk
* Weight gain should be 1 to 2 lbs per week during the 2nd and 3rd trimester and 3 to 5 lbs gain during the first trimester for a total of 25-35 lbs recommended weight gain during the gravida state.
12. The more accurate method of measuring fundal height is [2]
A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
C. Inches
D. Fingerbreadths
* Fundal height is measured in cm not mm. centimeters is the more accurate method of measuring fundic height than inches or fingerbreadths.
13. To determine fetal position using Leopold's maneuvers, the first maneuver is to [1]
A. Determine degree of cephalic flexion and engagement
B. Determine part of fetus presenting into pelvis
C. Locate the back,arms and legs
D. Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus
* Leopold's one determines what is it in the fundus. This determines whether the fetal head or breech is in the fundus. A head is round and hard. Breech is less well defined.
14. Aling julia has encouraged her husband to attend prenatal classes with her. During the prenatal class, the couple expressed fear of pain during labor and delivery. The use of touch and soothing voice often promotes comfort to the laboring patient. This physical intervention is effective because [2]
A. Pain perception is interrupted
B. Gate control fibers are open
C. It distracts the client away from the pain
D. Empathy is communicated by a caring person
* Touch and soothing voice promotes pain distraction. Instead of thinking too much of the pain in labor, The mother is diverted away from the pain sensation by the use of touch and voice. Pain perception is not interrupted, pain is still present. When gate control fibers are open, Pain is felt according to the gate control theory of pain. Although empathy is communicated by the caring person, this is not the reason why touch and voice promotes comfort to a laboring patient.
15. Which of the following could be considered as a positive sign of pregnancy ? [1]
A. Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography
* Fetal outline by sonography or other imaging devices is considered a positive sign of pregnancy along with the presence of fetal heart rate and movement felt by a qualified examiner. All those signs with the discoverer's name on them [ chadwick, hegars, braxton hicks, goodells ] are considered probable and All the physiologic changes brought about by pregnancy like hyperpigmentation, fatgiue, uterine enlargement, nausea, vomiting, breast changes, frequent urination are considered presumptive.
Sonographic evidence of the gestational sac is not POSITIVE sign but rather, PROBABLE.
SITUATION : [FFC] Maternal and child health is the program of the department of health created to lessen the death of infants and mother in the philippines. [2]
16. What is the goal of this program?
A. Promote mother and infant health especially during the gravida stage
B. Training of local hilots
C. Direct supervision of midwives during home delivery
D. Health teaching to mother regarding proper newborn care
* The goal of the MCHN program of the DOH is the PROMOTION AND MAINTENANCE OF OPTIMUM HEALTH OF WOMAN AND THEIR NEWBORN. To achieve this goal, B,C and D are all carried out. Even without the knowledge of the MCHN goal you SHOULD answer this question correctly. Remember that GOALS are your plans or things you MUST ATTAIN while STRATEGIES are those that must be done [ ACTIONS ] to attain your goal.
Looking at B,C and D they are all ACTIONS. Only A correctly followed the definition of a goal.
17. One philosophy of the maternal and child health nursing is [1]
A. All pregnancy experiences are the same for all woman
B. Culture and religious practices have little effect on pregnancy of a woman
C. Pregnancy is a part of the life cycle but provides no meaning
D. The father is as important as the mother
* Knowing that not all individuals and pregnancy are the same for all women, you can safely eliminate letter A. Personal, culture and religious attitudes influence the meaning of pregnancy and that makes pregnancy unique for each individual. Culture and religious practice have a great impact on pregnancy, eliminate B. Pregnancy is meaningful to each individuals, not only the mother but also the father and the family and the father of the child is as important as the mother. MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH IS FAMILY CENTERED and thid will guide you in correctly answering D.
18. In maternal care, the PHN responsibility is [2]
A. To secure all information that would be needing in birth certificate
B. To protect the baby against tetanus neonatorum by immunizing the mother with DPT
C. To reach all pregnant woman
D. To assess nutritional status of existing children
* The sole objective of the MCHN of the DOH is to REACH ALL PREGNANT WOMEN AND GIVE SUFFICIENT CARE TO ENSURE A HEALTHY PREGNANCY AND THE BIRTH OF A FULL TERM HEALTH BABY. As not to confuse this with the GOAL of the MCHN, The OBJECTIVE should answer the GOAL, they are different. GOAL : to promote and maintain optimum health for women and their newborn HOW? OBJECTIVE : By reaching all pregnant women to give sufficient care ensuring healthy pregnancy and baby.
19. This is use when rendering prenatal care in the rural health unit. It serves as a guide in Identification of risk factors [1]
A. Underfive clinic chart
B. Home based mother's record
C. Client list of mother under prenatal care
D. Target list of woman under TT vaccination
* The HBMR is used in rendring prenatal care as guide in identifying risk factors. It contains health promotion message and information on the danger signs of pregnancy.
20. The schedule of prenatal visit in the RHU unit is [4]
A. Once from 1st up to 8th month, weekly on the 9th month
B. Twice in 1st and second trimester, weekly on third trimester
C. Once in each trimester, more frequent for those at risk
D. Frequent as possible to determine the presence of FHT each week
* Visit to the RHU should be ONCE each trimester and more frequent for those who are high risks. The visit to the BHS or health center should be ONCE for 1st to 6th months of pregnancy, TWICE for the 7th to 8th month and weekly during the 9th month. They are different and are not to be confused with.
SITUATION : Knowledge of the menstrual cycle is important in maternal health nursing. The following questions pertains to the process of menstruation
21. Menarche occurs during the pubertal period, Which of the following occurs first in the development of female sex characteristics? [2]
A. Menarche
B. Accelerated Linear Growth
C. Breast development
D. Growth of pubic hair
* Remember TAMO or THELARCHE, ADRENARCHE, MENARCHE and OVULATION. Telarche is the beginning of the breast development which is influenced by the increase in estrogen level during puberty. Adrenarche is the development of axillary and pubic hair due to androgen stimulation. Menarche is the onset of first menstruation that averagely occurs at around 12 to 13 years old. Ovulation then occurs last. However, prior to TAMO, Accelerated LINEAR GROWTH will occur first in GIRLS while WEIGHT INCREASE is the first one to occur in boys.
22. Which gland is responsible for initiating the menstrual cycle? [3]
A. Ovaries
B. APG
C. PPG
D. Hypothalamus
* Hypothalamus secretes many different hormones and one of them is the FSHRF or the FOLLICLE STIMULATING HORMONE RELEASING FACTOR. This will instruct the ANTERIOR PITUITARY GLAND to secrete FSH that will stimulate the ovary to release egg and initiate the menstrual cycle.
The PPG or the posterior pituitary only secretes two hormones : OXYTOCIN and ADH. It plays an important factor in labor as well as in the pathophysiology of diabetes insipidus.
23. The hormone that stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen is [1]
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH
* FSH stimulates the ovaries to secrete estrogen. This hormone is a 3 substance compounds known as estrone [e1], estradiol [2] and estriol [3] responsible for the development of female secondary sex characteristics. It also stimulates the OOCYTES to mature. During pregnancy, Estrogen is secreted by the placenta that stimulates uterine growth to accomodate the fetus.
24. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation? [2]
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH
* Refer to #23
25. When is the serum estrogen level highest in the menstrual cycle? [4]
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle
* There are only 3 days to remember in terms of hormonal heights during pregnancy. 3,13 and 14. During the 3rd day, Serum estrogen is the lowest. During the 13th day, Serum estrogen is at it's peak while progestrone is at it's lowest and this signifies that a mature oocyte is ready for release. At 14th day, Progesterone will surge and this is the reason why there is a sudden increase of temperature during the ovulation day and sudden drop during the previous day. This will not stimulate the release of the mature egg or what we call, OVULATION.
26. To correctly determine the day of ovulation, the nurse must [2]
A. Deduct 14 days at the mid of the cycle
B. Subtract two weeks at cycle's end
C. Add 7 days from mid of the cycle
D. Add 14 days from the end of the cycle
* Refer to # 9
4 – Very hard question, 25% Chance of answering correctly
3 – Hard question, 50% Chance of answering correctly
2 – Moderately hard question, 75% of answering correctly1 – Easy question, 99% will answer the question correctly
SITUATION : [ND89] Aling Julia, a 32 year old fish vendor from baranggay matahimik came to see you at the prenatal clinic. She brought with her all her three children. Maye, 1 year 6 months; Joy, 3 and Dan, 7 years old. She mentioned that she stopped taking oral contraceptives several months ago and now suspects she is pregnant. She cannot remember her LMP.
1. Which of the following would be useful in calculating Aling Julia's EDC? [3]
A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope
C. Increase pulse rate
D. Presence of edema
* The answer of some people is A because they say linea negra appears at 2nd trimester. Appearance of Linea negra is not the same with all women. Some will have it as early as first trimester while other on the 2nd trimester. It is very subjective and non normative.
However, First FHT by fetoscope is UNIVERSAL and it is arbitrarily accepted that it starts at the 4th month of gestation. Therefore, If I heard the First FHT by fetoscope, I can say that Aling Julia's EDC is at 4th month and the EDC will be around 5 months from now.Pulse rate and Edema will never suggest the estimated date of confinement nor age of gestation.
2. Which hormone is necessary for a positive pregnancy test? [1]
A. Progesterone
B. HCG
C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen
* HCG is responsible for positive pregnancy test. But it is NOT a positive sign of pregnancy. Only PROBABLE. Purpose of HCG is to maintain the secretion of progestrone by the corpus luteum. It will deteriorate by 2nd trimester as the placenta resumes its funciton. HCG is also use to stimulate descend of the testes in case of cryptorchidism or undescended testes. HCG peaks at 10 weeks then decline for the rest of the pregnancy. Non pregnant females will have less than 5 mIU/ml and can reach up to 100,000 mIU/ml in pregnant women. By the way, undescended testes repair is done when the child is 1 year old according to Lippinncots, the doctor will try to wait baka kasi bumaba pa before they do surgery.
3. With this pregnancy, Aling Julia is a [1]
A. P3 G3
B. Primigravida
C. P3 G4
D. P0 G3
* She has 3 children, so para 3. Since she is pregnant, this is her 4th gravida. Remember that even if the pregancy is beyond the age of viability [ >7 months ] consider it as PARA and not GRAVIDA as long as the baby is still inside the uterus. A common error of the old nurses in a puericulture center where I dutied in is that they count the child inside the mother's womb as GRAVIDA when it is greater than 7 months! [ kawawang nanay, mali na ang home based mothers record mo ] I tried to correct it but they still INSISTED. I read pillitteri thinking that I might be wrong nakakahiya naman... but I was right.
4. In explaining the development of her baby, you identified in chronological order of growth of the fetus as it occurs in pregnancy as [1]
A. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
B. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
C. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
D. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant
* The Ovum is the egg cell from the mother, the sperm will fertilize it to form a zygote. This usually happens in the AMPULLA or the distal third of the fallopian tube. Hyalorunidase is secreted by the sperm to dissolve the outer memberane of the ovum. The zygote now containes 46 chromosomes. 23 from each germ cell. The zygote is now termed as an embryo once it has been implanted. Implantation takes 3-4 days. When the embryo reach 8th weeks, it is now termed as a FETUS until it has been delivered and then, neonate then infant.
5. Aling Julia states she is happy to be pregnant. Which behavior is elicited by her during your assessment that would lead you to think she is stressed? [3]
A. She told you about her drunk husband
B. She states she has very meager income from selling
C. She laughs at every advise you give even when its not funny
D. She has difficulty following instructions
* Stressed is manifested in different ways and one of them, is difficulty following instructions. Telling you that her husband is drunk and has meager income from selling is not enough for you to conclude she is stressed. Assessment is always based on factual and specific manifestations. A diagnosis is made from either ACTUAL or POTENTIAL/RISK problems. A and B are both potential problems, but not actual like D. C is automatically eliminated first because laughing is not indicative of stress.
6. When teaching Aling Julia about her pregnancy, you should include personal common discomforts. Which of the following is an indication for prompt professional supervision? [2]
A. Constipation and hemorrhoids
B. Backache
C. Facial edema
D. frequent urination
*Facial edema is NOT NORMAL. Facial edema is one sign of MILD PRE ECLAMPSIA and prompt professional supervision is needed to lower down the client's blood pressure. Blood pressure in Mild Pre Eclampsia is around 140/90 and 160/110 in severe. Treatment involves bed rest, Magnesium sulfate, Hydralazine, Diazoxide and Diazepam [ usually a combination of Magsul + Apresoline [ Hydralazine ] ] Calcium gluconate is always at the client's bed side when magnesium toxicity occurs. It works by exchanging Calcium ions for magnesium ions. A,B and D are all physiologic change in pregnancy that do not need prompt professional supervision. Frequent urination will disappear as soon as the pressure of the uterus is released against the bladder and as soon as the client's blood volume has returned to normal. Backache is a common complaint of women with an OCCIPUT POSTERIOR presentation due to pressure on the back. Intervention includes pelvic rocking or running a tennis ball at the client's back. Constipation and hemorrhoids are relieved by increasing fluid intake and hot sitz bath.
7. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for you to include in Aling Julia's prenatal teaching plan? [1]
A. Exercise is very tiresome, it should be avoided
B. Limit your food intake
C. Smoking has no harmful effect on the growth and development of fetus
D. Avoid unnecessary fatigue, rest periods should be included in you schedule
* Exercise is not avoided in pregnancy, therfore eliminate A. Food is never limited in pregnancy. Calories are even increased by around 300 cal a day as well as vitamins and minerals. Smoking, alcohol and drug use are avoided for the rest of the pregnancy because of their harmful effects on the growth and development of the fetus. Rest period and avoiding unecessary fatigue is one of the pillars in health teaching of the pregnant client.
8. The best advise you can give to Aling Julia regarding prevention of varicosities is [3]
A. Raise the legs while in upright position and put it against the wall several times a day
B. Lay flat for most hours of the day
C. Use garters with nylon stocking
D. Wear support hose
* A thigh high stocking or a support hose WORN BEFORE GETTING UP in the morning is effective in prevention of varicosities. Stocking should have NO GARTERS because it impedes blood flow, they should be made of COTTON not nylon to allow the skin to breathe. Lying flat most of the day WILL PREVENT VARICOSITIES but will not be helpful for the client's overall health and function. Raising the legs and putting it against the wall will still create pressure in the legs.
9. In a 32 day menstrual cycle, ovulation usually occurs on the [2]
A. 14th day after menstruation
B. 18th day after menstruation
C. 20th day after menstruation
D. 24th day after menstruation
* To get the day of ovulation, A diary is made for around 6 months to determine the number of days of menstrual cycle [ from onset of mens to the next onset of mens ] and the average is taken from that cycles. 14 days are subtracted from the total days of the menstrual cycle. This signifies the ovulation day. A couple would abstain having sex 5 days before and 5 days after the ovulation day. Therefore, a 32 day cycle minus 14 days equals 18, hence... ovulation occurs at the 18th day.
10. Placenta is the organ that provides exchange of nutrients and waste products between mother and fetus. This develops by [4]
A. First month
B. Third month
C. Fifth month
D. Seventh month
* The placenta is formed at around 3 months. It is a latin word for PANCAKE because of it's appearance. It arises from the trophoblast from the chorionic villi and decidua basalis. It functions as the fetal lungs, kidney, GI tract and an endocrine organ.
11. In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Julia, you know the minimum weight gain during pregnancy is [3]
A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk
C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk
* Weight gain should be 1 to 2 lbs per week during the 2nd and 3rd trimester and 3 to 5 lbs gain during the first trimester for a total of 25-35 lbs recommended weight gain during the gravida state.
12. The more accurate method of measuring fundal height is [2]
A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
C. Inches
D. Fingerbreadths
* Fundal height is measured in cm not mm. centimeters is the more accurate method of measuring fundic height than inches or fingerbreadths.
13. To determine fetal position using Leopold's maneuvers, the first maneuver is to [1]
A. Determine degree of cephalic flexion and engagement
B. Determine part of fetus presenting into pelvis
C. Locate the back,arms and legs
D. Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus
* Leopold's one determines what is it in the fundus. This determines whether the fetal head or breech is in the fundus. A head is round and hard. Breech is less well defined.
14. Aling julia has encouraged her husband to attend prenatal classes with her. During the prenatal class, the couple expressed fear of pain during labor and delivery. The use of touch and soothing voice often promotes comfort to the laboring patient. This physical intervention is effective because [2]
A. Pain perception is interrupted
B. Gate control fibers are open
C. It distracts the client away from the pain
D. Empathy is communicated by a caring person
* Touch and soothing voice promotes pain distraction. Instead of thinking too much of the pain in labor, The mother is diverted away from the pain sensation by the use of touch and voice. Pain perception is not interrupted, pain is still present. When gate control fibers are open, Pain is felt according to the gate control theory of pain. Although empathy is communicated by the caring person, this is not the reason why touch and voice promotes comfort to a laboring patient.
15. Which of the following could be considered as a positive sign of pregnancy ? [1]
A. Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography
* Fetal outline by sonography or other imaging devices is considered a positive sign of pregnancy along with the presence of fetal heart rate and movement felt by a qualified examiner. All those signs with the discoverer's name on them [ chadwick, hegars, braxton hicks, goodells ] are considered probable and All the physiologic changes brought about by pregnancy like hyperpigmentation, fatgiue, uterine enlargement, nausea, vomiting, breast changes, frequent urination are considered presumptive.
Sonographic evidence of the gestational sac is not POSITIVE sign but rather, PROBABLE.
SITUATION : [FFC] Maternal and child health is the program of the department of health created to lessen the death of infants and mother in the philippines. [2]
16. What is the goal of this program?
A. Promote mother and infant health especially during the gravida stage
B. Training of local hilots
C. Direct supervision of midwives during home delivery
D. Health teaching to mother regarding proper newborn care
* The goal of the MCHN program of the DOH is the PROMOTION AND MAINTENANCE OF OPTIMUM HEALTH OF WOMAN AND THEIR NEWBORN. To achieve this goal, B,C and D are all carried out. Even without the knowledge of the MCHN goal you SHOULD answer this question correctly. Remember that GOALS are your plans or things you MUST ATTAIN while STRATEGIES are those that must be done [ ACTIONS ] to attain your goal.
Looking at B,C and D they are all ACTIONS. Only A correctly followed the definition of a goal.
17. One philosophy of the maternal and child health nursing is [1]
A. All pregnancy experiences are the same for all woman
B. Culture and religious practices have little effect on pregnancy of a woman
C. Pregnancy is a part of the life cycle but provides no meaning
D. The father is as important as the mother
* Knowing that not all individuals and pregnancy are the same for all women, you can safely eliminate letter A. Personal, culture and religious attitudes influence the meaning of pregnancy and that makes pregnancy unique for each individual. Culture and religious practice have a great impact on pregnancy, eliminate B. Pregnancy is meaningful to each individuals, not only the mother but also the father and the family and the father of the child is as important as the mother. MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH IS FAMILY CENTERED and thid will guide you in correctly answering D.
18. In maternal care, the PHN responsibility is [2]
A. To secure all information that would be needing in birth certificate
B. To protect the baby against tetanus neonatorum by immunizing the mother with DPT
C. To reach all pregnant woman
D. To assess nutritional status of existing children
* The sole objective of the MCHN of the DOH is to REACH ALL PREGNANT WOMEN AND GIVE SUFFICIENT CARE TO ENSURE A HEALTHY PREGNANCY AND THE BIRTH OF A FULL TERM HEALTH BABY. As not to confuse this with the GOAL of the MCHN, The OBJECTIVE should answer the GOAL, they are different. GOAL : to promote and maintain optimum health for women and their newborn HOW? OBJECTIVE : By reaching all pregnant women to give sufficient care ensuring healthy pregnancy and baby.
19. This is use when rendering prenatal care in the rural health unit. It serves as a guide in Identification of risk factors [1]
A. Underfive clinic chart
B. Home based mother's record
C. Client list of mother under prenatal care
D. Target list of woman under TT vaccination
* The HBMR is used in rendring prenatal care as guide in identifying risk factors. It contains health promotion message and information on the danger signs of pregnancy.
20. The schedule of prenatal visit in the RHU unit is [4]
A. Once from 1st up to 8th month, weekly on the 9th month
B. Twice in 1st and second trimester, weekly on third trimester
C. Once in each trimester, more frequent for those at risk
D. Frequent as possible to determine the presence of FHT each week
* Visit to the RHU should be ONCE each trimester and more frequent for those who are high risks. The visit to the BHS or health center should be ONCE for 1st to 6th months of pregnancy, TWICE for the 7th to 8th month and weekly during the 9th month. They are different and are not to be confused with.
SITUATION : Knowledge of the menstrual cycle is important in maternal health nursing. The following questions pertains to the process of menstruation
21. Menarche occurs during the pubertal period, Which of the following occurs first in the development of female sex characteristics? [2]
A. Menarche
B. Accelerated Linear Growth
C. Breast development
D. Growth of pubic hair
* Remember TAMO or THELARCHE, ADRENARCHE, MENARCHE and OVULATION. Telarche is the beginning of the breast development which is influenced by the increase in estrogen level during puberty. Adrenarche is the development of axillary and pubic hair due to androgen stimulation. Menarche is the onset of first menstruation that averagely occurs at around 12 to 13 years old. Ovulation then occurs last. However, prior to TAMO, Accelerated LINEAR GROWTH will occur first in GIRLS while WEIGHT INCREASE is the first one to occur in boys.
22. Which gland is responsible for initiating the menstrual cycle? [3]
A. Ovaries
B. APG
C. PPG
D. Hypothalamus
* Hypothalamus secretes many different hormones and one of them is the FSHRF or the FOLLICLE STIMULATING HORMONE RELEASING FACTOR. This will instruct the ANTERIOR PITUITARY GLAND to secrete FSH that will stimulate the ovary to release egg and initiate the menstrual cycle.
The PPG or the posterior pituitary only secretes two hormones : OXYTOCIN and ADH. It plays an important factor in labor as well as in the pathophysiology of diabetes insipidus.
23. The hormone that stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen is [1]
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH
* FSH stimulates the ovaries to secrete estrogen. This hormone is a 3 substance compounds known as estrone [e1], estradiol [2] and estriol [3] responsible for the development of female secondary sex characteristics. It also stimulates the OOCYTES to mature. During pregnancy, Estrogen is secreted by the placenta that stimulates uterine growth to accomodate the fetus.
24. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation? [2]
A. GnRH
B. LH
C. LHRF
D. FSH
* Refer to #23
25. When is the serum estrogen level highest in the menstrual cycle? [4]
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle
* There are only 3 days to remember in terms of hormonal heights during pregnancy. 3,13 and 14. During the 3rd day, Serum estrogen is the lowest. During the 13th day, Serum estrogen is at it's peak while progestrone is at it's lowest and this signifies that a mature oocyte is ready for release. At 14th day, Progesterone will surge and this is the reason why there is a sudden increase of temperature during the ovulation day and sudden drop during the previous day. This will not stimulate the release of the mature egg or what we call, OVULATION.
26. To correctly determine the day of ovulation, the nurse must [2]
A. Deduct 14 days at the mid of the cycle
B. Subtract two weeks at cycle's end
C. Add 7 days from mid of the cycle
D. Add 14 days from the end of the cycle
* Refer to # 9
Big thanks to marisse for the correction in this number.
27. The serum progesterone is lowest during what day of the menstrual cycle? [4]
A. 3rd day
B. 13th day
C. 14th day
D. End of menstrual cycle
* At 3rd day, The serum estrogen is at it's lowest. At the 13th day, serum estrogen is at it's peak while progesterone is at it's lowest. At the 13th day of the cycle, An available matured ovum is ready for fertilization and implantation. The slight sharp drop of temperature occurs during this time due to the very low progestrone level. The next day, 14th day, The serum progestrone sharply rises and this causes the release of the matured ovum. Temperature also rises at this point because of the sudden increase in the progestrone level.
28. How much blood is loss on the average during menstrual period? [4]
A. Half cup
B. 4 tablespoon
C. 3 ounces
D. 1/3 cup
* The average blood loss during pregnancy is 60 cc. A, half cup is equivalent to 120 cc. C, is equivalent to 90 cc while D, is equivalent to 80 cc. 1 tablespoon is equal to 15 ml. 4 tablespoon is exactly 60 cc.
29. Menstruation occurs because of which following mechanism? [2]
A. Increase level of estrogen and progesterone level
B. Degeneration of the corpus luteum
C. Increase vascularity of the endothelium
D. Surge of hormone progesterone
* Degeneration of the corpus luteum is the cause of menstruation. Menstruation occurs because of the decrease of both estrogen and progestrone. This is caused by the regression of the corpus luteum inside the ovary 8 to 10 days in absence of fertilization after an ovum was released. With the absence of progestrone, the endometrium degenerates and therefore, vascularity will decrease at approximately 25th day of the cycle which causes the external manifestation of menstruation.
30. If the menstrual cycle of a woman is 35 day cycle, she will approximately [2]
A. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
B. Ovulate on the 21st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 21th day of her cycle
C. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 26th day of her cycle
D. Ovulate on the 22st day with fertile days beginning on the 14th day to the 30th day of her cycle
* Formula for getting the fertile days and ovulation day is : Number of days of cycle MINUS 14 [ Ovulation day ] Minus 5 Plus 5 [ Possible fertile days ].
Since the client has a 35 day cycle, we subtract 14 days to get the ovulation day which is 21. Minus 5 days is equal to [21 - 5 = 16 ] 16 , Plus 5 days [ 21 + 5 = 26 ] is equal to 26. Therefore, Client is fertile during the 16th to the 26th day of her cycle. This is the same principle and formula used in the calendar / rhythm method.
SITUATION : Wide knowledge about different diagnostic tests during pregnancy is an essential arsenal for a nurse to be successful.
31. The Biparietal diameter of a fetus is considered matured if it is atleast [4]
A. 9.8 cm
B. 8.5 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 6 cm
* BPD is considered matured at 8.5 cm and at term when it reaches 9.6 cm.
32. Quickening is experienced first by multigravida clients. At what week of gestation do they start to experience quickening? [4]
A. 16th
B. 20th
C. 24th
D. 28th
* Multigravid clients experience quickening at around 16 weeks or 4 months. Primigravid clients experience this 1 month later, at the 5th month or 20th week.
33. Before the start of a non stress test, The FHR is 120 BPM. The mother ate the snack and the practitioner noticed an increase from 120 BPM to 135 BPM for 15 seconds. How would you read the result? [3]
A. Abnormal
B. Non reactive
C. Reactive
D. Inconclusive, needs repeat
* Normal non stress test result is REACTIVE. Non stress test is a diagnostic procedure in which the FHR is compared with the child's movement. A normal result is an increase of 15 BPM sustained for 15 seconds at every fetal movement. The mother is told to eat a light snack during the procedure while the examiner carefully monitors the FHR. The mother will tell the examiner that she felt a movement as soon as she feels it while the examiner take note of the time and the FHR of the fetus.
34. When should the nurse expect to hear the FHR using a fetoscope? [4]
A. 2nd week
B. 8th week
C. 2nd month
D. 4th month
* The FHR is heard at about 4 months using a fetoscope. Remember the word FeFOUR to relate fetoscope to four.
35. When should the nurse expect to hear FHR using doppler Ultrasound? [4]
A. 8th week
B. 8th month
C. 2nd week
D. 4th month
* The FHR is heard as early as 8th week [ some books, 12 to 14 weeks ] using doppler ultrasound. Remember the word DOPPLE RATE, [ DOPPLER 8 ] to relate dopple ultrasound to the number 8.
36. The mother asks, What does it means if her maternal serum alpha feto protein is 35 ng/ml? The nurse should answer [4]
A. It is normal
B. It is not normal
C. 35 ng/ml indicates chromosomal abberation
D. 35 ng/ml indicates neural tube defect
* The normal maternal alpha feto protein is 38-45 ng/ml. Less 38 than this indicates CHROMOSOMAL ABBERATION [Down,Klinefelters] and more than 45 means NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS [Spina Bifida]. Remember the word CLINICAL NURSE. C for chromosomal abberation for <38>N for neural tube defect for >45. C<38>45 Clinic Nurse.
CLINIC NURSE is also an important mnemonics to differentiate COUNTER TRANSFERENCE from TRANSFERENCE. Counter transference is the special feeling of the CLINIC NURSE or CLINICIAN to the patient while transference is the development of personal feelings of the patient to the nurse.
37. Which of the following mothers needs RHOGAM? [1]
A. RH + mother who delivered an RH - fetus
B. RH - mother who delivered an RH + fetus
C. RH + mother who delivered an RH + fetus
D. RH - mother who delivered an RH - fetus
* Rhogam is given to RH - Mothers That delivers an RH + Fetus. Rhogam prevents ISOIMMUNIZATION or the development of maternal antibodies against the fetal blood due to RH incompatibility. Once the mother already develops an antibody against the fetus, Rhogam will not anymore be benificial and the mother is advised no to have anymore pregnancies. Rhogam is given within 72 hours after delivery.
38. Which family planning method is recommended by the department of health more than any other means of contraception? [4]
A. Fertility Awareness Method
B. Condom
C. Tubal Ligation
D. Abstinence
* Abstinence is never advocated as a family planning method. Though, It is probably the BEST METHOD to prevent STD and pregnancy, it is inhumane and supresses the reproductive rights of the people. It is also unrealistic. FAM is advocated by the DOH more than any other kind of contraception. It is a combination of symptothermal and billings method. CALENDAR method is the only method advocated by the catholic church.
39. How much booster dose does tetanus toxoid vaccination for pregnant women has? [4]
A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
* TT1 and TT2 are both primary dosages. While TT3 up to TT5 represents the booster dosages.
40. Baranggay pinoybsn.tk has 70,000 population. How much nurse is needed to service this population? [4]
A. 5
B. 7
C. 50
D. 70
* For every 10,000 population , 1 nurse is needed. therefore, a population of 70,000 people needs a service of 7 nurses.
SITUATION : [ND2I246] Reproductive health is the exercise of reproductive right with responsibility. A married couple has the responsibility to reproduce and procreate.
41. Which of the following is ONE of the goals of the reproductive health concept? [3]
A. To achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. To prevent specific RH problem through counseling
C. Provide care, treatment and rehabilitation
D. To practice RH as a way of life of every man and woman
* EVERY ACHIEVER AVOIDS RECEIVER : Remember this mnemonics and it will guide you in differentiating which is which from the goals, visions and strategies. If a sentence begins with these words, it is automatically a GOAL. Usually, The trend in the board is that they will mix up the vision, strategies and goals to confuse you. D is the only vision of the RH program. Anything else aside from the vision and goals are more likely strategies. [ B and C ]
Strategies, even without knowing them or memorizing them can easily be seperated as they convey ACTIONS and ACTUAL INTERVENTIONS. This is universal and also applies to other DOH programs. Notice that B and C convey actions and interventions.
42. Which of the following is NOT an element of the reproductive health? [4]
A. Maternal and child health and nutrition
B. Family planning
C. Prevention and management of abortion complication
D. Healthy sexual development and nutrition
* Achieving healthy sexual development and nutrition is a GOAL of the RH. Knowledge of the elements, goals, strategies and vision of RH are important in answering this question. I removed the word ACHIEVE to let you know that it is possible for the board of nursing not to include those keywords [ although it never happened as of yet ].
43. In the international framework of RH, which one of the following is the ultimate goal? [3]
A. Women's health in reproduction
B. Attainment of optimum health
C. Achievement of women's status
D. Quality of life
* Quality of life is the ultimate goal of the RH in the international framework. Way of life is the ultimate goal of RH in the local framework.
44. Which one of the following is a determinant of RH affecting woman's ability to participate in social affairs? [3]
A. Gender issues
B. Socio-Economic condition
C. Cultural and psychosocial factors
D. Status of women
* This is an actual board question, Gender issues affects the women participation in the social affairs. Socio economic condition is the determinant for education, employment, poverty, nutrition, living condition and family environment. Status of women evolves in women's rights. Cultural and psychosocial factors refers to the norms, behaviors, orientation, values and culture. Refer to your DOH manual to read more about this.
45. In the philippine RH Framework. which major factor affects RH status? [4]
A. Women's lower level of literacy
B. Health service delivery mechanism
C. Poor living conditions lead to illness
D. Commercial sex workers are exposed to AIDS/STD.
* Health services delivery mechanism is the major factor that affect RH status. Other factors are women's behavior, Sanitation and water supply, Employment and working conditions etc.
46. Which determinant of reproductive health advocates nutrition for better health promotion and maintain a healthful life? [4]
A. Socio-Economic conditions
B. Status of women
C. Social and gender issues
D. Biological, Cultural and Psychosocial factors
* Refer to # 44
47. Which of the following is NOT a strategy of RH? [3]
A. Increase and improve contraceptive methods
B. Achieve reproductive intentions
C. Care provision focused on people with RH problems
D. Prevent specific RH problem through information dessemination
* Refer to #41
48. Which of the following is NOT a goal of RH? [3]
A. Achieve healthy sexual development and maturation
B. Avoid illness/diseases, injuries, disabilities related to sexuality and reproduction
C. Receive appropriate counseling and care of RH problems
D. Strengthen outreach activities and the referral system
* Refer to #41
49. What is the VISION of the RH? [2]
A. Attain QUALITY OF LIFE
B. Practice RH as a WAY OF LIFE
C. Prevent specific RH problem
D. Health in the hands of the filipino
* Refer to #43
SITUATION : [SORANGE19] Baby G, a 6 hours old newborn is admitted to the NICU because of low APGAR Score. His mother had a prolonged second stage of labor
50. Which of the following is the most important concept associated with all high risk newborn? [1]
A. Support the high-risk newborn's cardiopulmonary adaptation by maintaining adequate airway
B. Identify complications with early intervention in the high risk newborn to reduce morbidity and mortality
C. Assess the high risk newborn for any physical complications that will assist the parent with bonding
D. Support mother and significant others in their request toward adaptation to the high risk newborn
* The 3 major and initial and immediate needs of newborns both normal and high risks are AIR/BREATHING, CIRCULATION and TEMPERATURE. C and D are both eliminated because they do not address the immediate newborn needs. Identifying complication with early intervention is important, however, this does not address the IMMEDIATE and MOST IMPORTANT newborn needs.
51. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a newborn with birth asphyxia? [1]
A. Hyperoxemia
B. Acidosis
C. Hypocapnia
D. Ketosis
* Birth Asphyxia is a term used to describe the inability of an infant to maintain an adequate respiration within 1 minute after birth that leads so acidosis, hypoxia, hypoxemia and tissue anoxia. This results to Hypercapnia not Hypocapnia due to the increase in carbonic acid concentration in the fetal circulation because the carbon dioxide fails to get eliminated from the infant's lungs because of inadequate respiration. Ketosis is the presence of ketones in the body because of excessive fat metabolism. This is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.
52. When planning and implementing care for the newborn that has been successfully resuscitated, which of the following would be important to assess? [1]
A. Muscle flaccidity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Decreased intracranial pressure
D. Spontaneous respiration
* There is no need to assess for spontaneous respiration because OF the word SUCCESSFULLY RESUSCITATED. What is it to assess is the quality and quantity of respiration. Infants who undergone tremendous physical challenges during birth like asphyxia, prolonged labor, RDS are all high risk for developing hypoglycemia because of the severe depletion of glucose stores to sustain the demands of the body during those demanding times.
SITUATION : [P-I/46] Nurses should be aware of the different reproductive problems.
53. When is the best time to achieve pregnancy? [2]
A. Midway between periods
B. Immediately after menses end
C. 14 days before the next period is expected
D. 14 days after the beginning of the next period
* The best time to achieve pregnancy is during the ovulation period which is about 14 days before the next period is expected. A Menstrual cycle is defined as the number of days from the start of the menstruation period, up to the start of another menstrual period. To obtain the ovulation day, Subtract 14 days from the end of each cycle.
Example, The start of the menstrual flow was July 12, 2006. The next flow was experienced August 11, 2006. The length of the menstrual cycle is then 30 days [ August 11 minus July 12 ]. We then subtract 14 days from that total length of the cycle and that will give us 16 days [ 30 minus 14 ] Count 16 days from July 12, 2006 and that will give us July 28, 2006 as the day of ovulation. [ July 12 + 16 days ] This is the best time for coitus if the intention is getting pregnant, worst time if not.
54. A factor in infertility maybe related to the PH of the vaginal canal. A medication that is ordered to alter the vaginal PH is: [2]
A. Estrogen therapy
B. Sulfur insufflations
C. Lactic acid douches
D. Na HCO3 Douches
* Sperm is innately ALKALINE. Too much acidity is the only PH alteration in the vagina that can kill sperm cells. Knowing this will direct you to answering letter D. Sodium Bicarbonate douches will make the vagina less acidic because of it's alkaline property, making the vagina's environment more conducive and tolerating to the sperm cells. Estrogen therapy will not alter the PH of the vaginal canal. HRT [ Hormone replacement therapy ] is now feared by many women because of the high risk in acquiring breast, uterine and cervical cancer. Research on this was even halted because of the significant risk on the sample population. Lactic acid douches will make the vagina more acidic, further making the environment hostile to the alkaline sperm. Sulfur insufflation is a procedure used to treat vaginal infections. A tube is inserted in the vagina and sulfur is introduced to the body. The yeasts, fungi and other microorganisms that are sensitive to sulfur are all immediately killed by it on contact.
55. A diagnostic test used to evaluate fertility is the postcoital test. It is best timed [2]
A. 1 week after ovulation
B. Immediately after menses
C. Just before the next menstrual period
D. Within 1 to 2 days of presumed ovulation
* A poscoital test evaluates both ovulation detection and sperm analysis. When the woman ovulates [ by using the FAM method or commercial ovulation detection kits, woman should know she ovulates ] The couple should have coitus and then, the woman will go to the clinic within 2 to 8 hours after coitus. The woman is put on a lithotomy position. A specimen for cervical mucus is taken and examined for spinnbarkeit [ ability to stretch 15 cm before breaking ] and sperm count. Postcoital test is now considered obsolete because a single sperm and cervical mucus analysis provides more accurate data.
56. A tubal insufflation test is done to determine whether there is a tubal obstruction. Infertility caused by a defect in the tube is most often related to a [3]
A. Past infection
B. Fibroid Tumor
C. Congenital Anomaly
D. Previous injury to a tube
* PID [ Most common cause of tubal obstruction ] due to untreated gonorrhea, chlamydia or other infections that leads to chronic salphingitis often leads to scarring of the fallopian tube thereby causing tubal obstuction. This one of the common cause of infertility, the most common is Anovulation in female and low sperm count in males. A ruptured appendix, peritonitis and abdominal surgery that leads to infection and adhesion of the fallopian tube can also lead to tubal obstruction.
57. Which test is commonly used to determine the number, motility and activity of sperm is the [2]
A. Rubin test
B. Huhner test
C. Friedman test
D. Papanicolau test
* Huhner test is synonymous to postcoital test. This test evaluates the number, motility and status of the sperm cells in the cervical mucus. refer to # 55 for more information. Rubin test is a test to determine the tubal patency by introducing carbon dioxide gas via a cannula to the client's cervix. The sound is then auscultated in the client's abdomen at the point where the outer end of the fallopian tube is located, near the fimbriae. Absent of sound means that the tube is not patent. Friedman test involves a FROG to determine pregnancy that is why it is also called as FROG TEST. Papanicolaou test [Correct spelling], discovered by Dr. George Papanicolaou during the 1930's is a cytolgic examination of the epithelial lining of the cervix. It is important in diagnosis cervical cancer.
58. In the female, Evaluation of the pelvic organs of reproduction is accomplished by [2]
A. Biopsy
B. Cystoscopy
C. Culdoscopy
D. Hysterosalpingogram
* Biopsy is acquiring a sample tissue for cytological examination. Usually done in cancer grading or detecting atypical, abnormal and neoplastic cells. Cystoscopy is the visualization of the bladder using a cystoscope. This is inserted via the urethra. TURP or the transurethral resection of the prostate is frequently done via cystoscopy to remove the need for incision in resecting the enlarged prostate in BPH. Culdoscopy is the insertion of the culdoscope through the posterior vaginal wall between the rectum and uterus to visualize the douglas cul de sac. This is an important landmark because this is the lowest point in the pelvis, fluid or blood tends to collect in this place. Hysterosalpingogram is the injection of a blue dye, or any radio opaque material through the cervix under pressure. X ray is then taken to visualize the pelvic organs. This is done only after menstruation to prevent reflux of the menstrual discharge up into the fallopian tube and to prevent an accidental irradiation of the zygote. As usual, as with all other procedures that ends in GRAM, assess for iodine allergy.
59. When is the fetal weight gain greatest? [3]
A. 1st trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. from 4th week up to 16th week of pregnancy
* Vital organs are formed during the first trimester, The greatest LENGTH gain occurs during the second trimester while the greatest weight gain occurs during the last trimester. This is the time when brown fats starts to be deposited in preparation for the upcoming delivery.
60. In fetal blood vessel, where is the oxygen content highest? [3]
A. Umbilical artery
B. Ductus Venosus
C. Ductus areteriosus
D. Pulmonary artery
* Ductus venosus is directly connected to the umbilical vein, Which is directly connected to the highly oxygenated placenta. This vessel supplies blood to the fetal liver. Umbilical arteries carries UNOXYGENATED BLOOD, they carry the blood away from the fetal body. Ductus arteriosus shunts the blood away from the fetal lungs, this carries an oxygenated blood but not as concentrated as the blood in the ductus venosus who have not yet service any of the fetal organ for oxygen except the liver. Knowing that the fetal lungs is not yet functional and expanded will guide you to automatically eliminate the pulmonary artery which is responsible for carrying UNOXYGENATED BLOOD away from the lungs.
61. The nurse is caring for a woman in labor. The woman is irritable, complains of nausea and vomits and has heavier show. The membranes rupture. The nurse understands that this indicates [1]
A. The woman is in transition stage of labor
B. The woman is having a complication and the doctor should be notified
C. Labor is slowing down and the woman may need oxytocin
D. The woman is emotionally distraught and needs assistance in dealing with labor
* The clue to the answer is MEMBRANES RUPTURE. Membranes, as a rule, rupture at full dilation [ 10 cm ] unless ruptured by amniotomy or ruptured at an earlier time. The last of the mucus plug from the cervix is also released during the transition phase of labor. We call that the OPERCULUM as signaled by a HEAVIER SHOW. During the transition phase, Cervix is dilated at around 8 to 10 cm and contractions reaches their peak of intensity occuring every 2 to 3 minutes with a 60 to 90 second duration.
At the transition phase, woman also experiences nausea and vomiting with intense pain. This question is LIFTED from the previous board and the question was patterned EXACTLY WORD PER WORD from pillitteri.
SITUATION : [J2I246] Katherine, a 32 year old primigravida at 39-40 weeks AOG was admitted to the labor room due to hypogastric and lumbo-sacral pains. IE revealed a fully dilated, fully effaced cervix. Station 0.
62. She is immediately transferred to the DR table. Which of the following conditions signify that delivery is near? [2]
I - A desire to defecate
II - Begins to bear down with uterine contraction
III - Perineum bulges
IV - Uterine contraction occur 2-3 minutes intervals at 50 seconds duration
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,III,IV
D. II,III,IV
* Again, lifted word per word from Pillitteri and this is from the NLE. A is the right answer. A woman near labor experiences desire to defecate because of the pressure of the fetal head that forces the stool out from the anus. She cannot help but bear down with each of the contractions and as crowning occurs, The perineum bulges. A woman with a 50 second contraction is still at the ACTIVE PHASE labor [ 40 to 60 seconds duration, 3 to 5 minutes interval ] Women who are about to give birth experience 60-90 seconds contraction occuring at 2-3 minutes interval.
63. Artificial rupture of the membrane is done. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is the priority? [2]
A. High risk for infection related to membrane rupture
B. Potential for injury related to prolapse cord
C. Alteration in comfort related to increasing strength of uterine contraction
D. Anxiety related to unfamiliar procedure
* Nursing diagnosis is frequently ask. In any case that INFECTION was one of the choices, remove it as soon as you see it in ALL CASES during the intra and pre operative nursing care. Infection will only occur after 48 hours of operation or event. B is much more immediate and more likely to occur than A, and is much more FATAL. Prioritization and Appropriateness is the key in correctly answering this question. High risk for infection is an appropriate nursing diagnosis, but as I said, Infection will occur in much later time and not as immediate as B. Readily remove D and C because physiologic needs of the mother and fetus take precedence over comfort measures and psychosocial needs.
64. Katherine complains of severe abdominal pain and back pain during contraction. Which two of the following measures will be MOST effective in reducing pain? [4]
I - Rubbing the back with a tennis ball
II- Effleurage
III-Imagery
IV-Breathing techniques
A. II,IV
B. II,III
C. I,IV
D. I,II
* Remove B. Imagery is not used in severe pain. This is a labor pain and the mother will never try to imagine a nice and beautiful scenery with you at this point because the pain is all encompassing and severe during the transition phase of labor. Remove A and C Because breathing techniques is not a method to ELIMINATE PAIN but a method to reduce anxiety, improve pushing and prevent rapid expulsion of the fetus during crowning [ By PANTING ]
Back pain is so severe during labor in cases of Posterior presentations [ ROP,LOP,RMP,LSaP, etc... ] Mother is asked to pull her knees towards her chest and rock her back. [ As in a rocking chair ] A Tennis ball rubbed at the client's back can relieve the pain due to the pressure of the presenting part on the posterior part of the birth canal. Also, rubbing a tennis ball to the client's back OPENS THE LARGE FIBER NERVE GATE. Effleurage or a simple rotational massage on the abdomen simply relieves the client's pain by opening the large fiber nerve gate and closing the the small fiber nerve gate. [ Please read about Gate control theory by Mezack and Wall ].
65. Lumbar epidural anesthesia is administered. Which of the following nursing responsibilities should be done immediately following procedure? [1]
A. Reposition from side to side
B. Administer oxygen
C. Increase IV fluid as indicated
D. Assess for maternal hypotension
* Hypotension is one of the side effects of an epidural anesthesia. An epidural anesthesia is injected on the L3 - L4 or L4 - L5 area. The injection lies just above the dura and must not cross the dura [ spinal anesthesia crosses the dura ]. Nursing intervention revolves in assesing RR, BP and other vital signs for possible complication and side effects. There is no need to position the client from side to side, The preferred position during the transition phase of labor is LITHOTOMY. Oxygen is not specific after administration of an epidural anesthesia. IV fluid is not increased without doctor's order. AS INDICATED is different from AS ORDERED.
66. Which is NOT the drug of choice for epidural anesthesia? [4]
A. Sensorcaine
B. Xylocaine
C. Ephedrine
D. Marcaine
* A,B and D are all drugs of choice for epidural anesthesia. Ephedrine is the drug use to reverse the symptom of hypotension caused by epidural anesthesia. It is a sympathomimetic agent that causes vasoconstriction, bronchodilation [ in asthma ] and can increase the amount of energy and alertness. Ephedrine is somewhat similar to epinephrine in terms of action as well as it's adverse effects of urinary retention, tremor, hypersalivation, dyspnea, tachycardia, hypertension.
SITUATION : [SORANGE217] Alpha, a 24 year old G4P3 at full term gestation is brought to the ER after a gush of fluid passes through here vagina while doing her holiday shopping.
67. She is brought to the triage unit. The FHT is noted to be 114 bpm. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first? [2]
A. Monitor FHT ever 15 minutes
B. Administer oxygen inhalation
C. Ask the charge nurse to notify the Obstetrician
D. Place her on the left lateral position
* Remove A. A FHR of 114 bpm is 6 beats below normal. Though monitoring is continuous and appropriate, This is not your immediate action. B, Oxygen inhalation needs doctor's order and therefore, is a DEPENDENT nursing action and won't be your first option. Although administration of oxygen by the nurse is allowed when given at the lowest setting during emergency situation. C is appropriate, but should not be your IMMEDIATE action. The best action is to place the client on the LEFT LATERAL POSITION to decrease the pressure in the inferior vena cava [ by the gravid uterus ] thereby increasing venus return and giving an adequate perfusion to the fetus. Your next action is to call and notify the obstetrician. Remember to look for an independent nursing action first before trying to call the physician.
68. The nurse checks the perineum of alpha. Which of the following characteristic of the amniotic fluid would cause an alarm to the nurse? [1]
A. Greenish
B. Scantly
C. Colorless
D. Blood tinged
* A greenish amniotic fluid heralds fetal distress not unless the fetus is in breech presentation and pressure is present on the bowel. Other color that a nurse should thoroughly evaluate are : Tea colored or strong yellow color that indicates hemolytic anemia , as in RH incompatibility.
69. Alpha asks the nurse. "Why do I have to be on complete bed rest? I am not comfortable in this position." Which of the following response of the nurse is most appropriate? [3]
A. Keeping you on bed rest will prevent possible cord prolapse
B. Completed bed rest will prevent more amniotic fluid to escape
C. You need to save your energy so you will be strong enough to push later
D. Let us ask your obstetrician when she returns to check on you
* Once the membrane ruptures, as in the situation of alpha, The immediate and most appropriate nursing diagnosis is risk for injury related to cord prolapse. Keeping the client on bed rest is one of the best intervention in preventing cord prolapse. Other interventions are putting the client in a modified T position or Kneed chest position. Once the amniotic fluid escapes, It is allowed to escape. Although bed rest does saves energy, It is not the most appropriate response why bed rest is prescribed after membranes have ruptured. Not answering the client's question now will promote distrust and increase client's anxiety. It will also make the client think that the nurse is incompetent for not knowing the answer.
70. Alpha wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal, the correct response is [4]
A. Twice
B. Thrice
C. Four times
D. 10-12 times
* According to Sandovsky, To count for the fetal movement, Mother is put on her LEFT SIDE to decrease placental insufficiency. This is usually done after meals. The mother is asked to record the number of fetal movements per hour. A fetus moves Twice every 10 minutes and 10 to 12 times times an hour.
In SIA'S Book, She answered this question with letter B. But according to Pillitteri, A movement fewer than 5 in an hour is to be reported to the health care provider. The Board examiners uses Pillitteri as their reference and WORD PER WORD, Their question are answered directly from the Pillitteri book. 10-12 times according to Pillitteri, is the normal fetal movement per minute.
71. Upon examination by the obstetrician, he charted that Alpha is in the early stage of labor. Which of the following is true in this state? [1]
A. Self-focused
B. Effacement is 100%
C. Last for 2 hours
D. Cervical dilation 1-3 cm
* The earliest phase of labor is the first stage of labor : latent phase characterized by a cervical dilation of 0-3 cm, Mild contraction lasting for 20 to 40 seconds. This lasts approximately 6 hours in primis and 4.5 hours in multis. C is the characteristic of ACTIVE PHASE of labor, Characterized by a cervical dilation of 4-7 cm and contractions of 40 to 60 seconds. This phase lasts at around 3 hours in primis and 2 hours in multis. Effacement of 100% is a characteristic of the TRANSITION PHASE as well as being self focused.
SITUATION : Maternal and child health nursing a core concept of providing health in the community. Mastery of MCH Nursing is a quality all nurse should possess.
72. When should be the 2nd visit of a pregnant mother to the RHU? [2]
A. Before getting pregnant
B. As early in pregnancy
C. Second trimester
D. Third trimester
* Visit to the RHU are once every trimester and more frequent for those women at risk. Visit to the health center is once during the 0-6th month of pregnancy, twice during the 7th-8th month and weekly at the last trimester.
73. Which of the following is NOT a standard prenatal physical examination? [1]
A. Neck examination for goiter
B. Examination of the palms of the hands for pallor
C. Edema examination of the face hands, and lower extremeties
D. Examination of the legs for varicosities
74. Which of the following is NOT a basic prenatal service delivery done in the BHS? [2]
A. Oral / Dental check up
B. Laboratory examination
C. Treatment of diseases
D. Iron supplementation
* A is done at the RHU not in BHS.
75. How many days and how much dosage will the IRON supplementation be taken? [4]
A. 365 days / 300 mg
B. 210 days / 200 mg
C. 100 days/ 100mg
D. 50 days / 50 mg
* Iron supplementation is taken for 210 days starting at the 5th month of pregnancy up to 2nd month post partum. Dosage can range from 100 to 200 mg.
76. When should the iron supplementation starts and when should it ends? [4]
A. 5th month of pregnancy to 2nd month post partum
B. 1st month of pregnancy to 5th month post partum
C. As early in pregnancy up to 9th month of pregnancy
D. From 1st trimester up to 6 weeks post partum
* Refer to #75
77. In malaria infested area, how is chloroquine given to pregnant women? [4]
A. 300 mg / twice a month for 9 months
B. 200 mg / once a week for 5 months
C. 150 mg / twice a week for the duration of pregnancy
D. 100 mg / twice a week for the last trimester of pregnancy
* Always remember that chloroquine is given twice a week for the whole duration of pregnancy. This knowledge alone will lead you to correctly identifying letter C.
78. Which of the following mothers are qualified for home delivery? [2]
A. Pre term
B. 6th pregnancy
C. Has a history of hemorrhage last pregnancy
D. 2nd pregnancy, Has a history of 20 hours of labor last pregnancy.
* Knowing that a preterm mother is not qualified for home delivery will help you eliminate A. History of complications like bleeding, CPD, Eclampsia and diseases like TB, CVD, Anemia also nulls this qualification. A qualified woman for home delivery should only had less than 5 pregnancies. More than 5 disqualifies her from home delivery. High risk length of labor for primigravidas ls more than 24 hours and for multigravidas, it is more than 12 hours. Knowing this will allow you to choose D.
79. Which of the following is not included on the 3 Cs of delivery? [2]
A. Clean Surface
B. Clean Hands
C. Clean Equipments
D. Clean Cord
* 3 Cs of delivery are CLEAN SURFACE,HANDS AND CORD. " Kinamay ni Cordapya ang labada gamit ang Surf - Budek "
80. Which of the following is unnecessary equipment to be included in the home delivery kit? [4]
A. Boiled razor blade
B. 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
C. Flashlight
D. Rectal and oral thermometer
* Home delivery kit should contain the following : Clamps, Scissors, Blade, Antiseptic, Soap and hand brush, Bp app, Clean towel or cloth and Flashlight.
Optional equipments include : Plastic sheet, Suction bulb, Weighing scale, Ophthalmic ointment, Nail cutter, Sterile gloves, Rectal and oral thermometers.
SITUATION : [NBLUE166] Pillar is admitted to the hospital with the following signs : Contractions coming every 10 minutes, lasting 30 seconds and causing little discomfort. Intact membranes without any bloody shows. Stable vital signs. FHR = 130bpm. Examination reveals cervix is 3 cm dilated with vertex presenting at minus 1 station.
81. On the basis of the data provided above, You can conclude the pillar is in the [1]
A. In false labor
B. In the active phase of labor
C. In the latent phase of labor
D. In the transitional phase of labor
* Refer to #71
82. Pitocin drip is started on Pilar. Possible side effects of pitocin administration include all of the following except [3]
A. Diuresis
B. Hypertension
C. Water intoxication
D. Cerebral hemorrhage
* Oxytocin [ Pitocin ] is a synthetic form of hormone naturally released by the PPG. It is used to augment labor and delivery. Dosage is about 1 to 2 milli units per minute and this can be doubled until the desired contraction is met. Side effects are Water intoxication, Diuresis, Hypertonicity of the uterus, Uterine rupture, Precipitated labor, Walang kamatayang Nausea and Vomiting and Fetal bradycardia. Diuresis occurs because of water intoxication, The kidney will try to compensate to balance the fluid in the body.
NEVER give pitocin when FHR is below 120. Even without knowing anything about Pitocin, A cerebral hemorrhage is LETHAL and DAMAGE IS IRREVERSIBLE and if this is a side effect of a drug, I do not think that FDA or BFAD will approve it.
83. The normal range of FHR is approximately [3]
A. 90 to 140 bpm
B. 120 to 160 bpm
C. 100 to 140 bpm
D. 140 to 180 bpm
* A normal fetal heart rate is 120-160 bpm.
84. A negative 1 [-1] station means that [1]
A. Fetus is crowning
B. Fetus is floating
C. Fetus is engaged
D. Fetus is at the ischial spine
* At the negative station, The fetus is not yet engaged and floating. At 0 station, it means that the fetus is engaged to the ischial spine. Crowning occurs when the fetus is at the +3,+4 Station. Stations signifies distance of the presensting part below or above ischial spine. + denoted below while - denotes above. The number after the sign denotes length in cm. +1 station therefore means that the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spine.
85. Which of the following is characteristics of false labor [1]
A. Bloody show
B. Contraction that are regular and increase in frequency and duration
C. Contraction are felt in the back and radiates towards the abdomen
D. None of the above
* A,B and C are all charactertistics of a true labor. True labor is heralded by LIGHTENING. This makes the uterus lower and more anterior. This occrs 2 weeks prior to labor. At the morning of labor, women experiences BURST OF ENERGY because of adrenaline rush induced by the decrease progestrone secretion of the deteriorating placenta. The pain in labor is felt at the back and radiates towards the abdomen and becomes regular, increasing frequency and duration. As the cervix softens and dilates, The OPERCULUM or the mucus plug is expelled.
False labor is characterized by Irregular uterine contraction that is relieved by walking, Pain felt at the abdomen and confined there and in the groin, The cervix do not achieve dilation and Pain that is relieved by sleep and do not increase in intensity and duration.
86. Who's Theory of labor pain that states that PAIN in labor is cause by FEAR [4]
A. Bradley
B. Simpson
C. Lamaze
D. Dick-Read
* Believe it or not, this is an actual board question. Grantley Dick-Read is just one person. Usually a two name theory means two theorist. He published a book in 1933 "CHILDBIRTH WITHOUT FEAR". He believes that PAIN in labor is caused by FEAR that causes muscle tension, thereby halting the blood towards the uterus and causing decreased oxygenation which causes the PAIN.
1950s French obstetrician, Dr. Ferdinand Lamaze perhaps is the most popular theorist when it comes to labor. The theory behind Lamaze is that birth is a normal, natural and healthy event that should occur without unnecessary medical intervention. Rather than resorting to pain medication, different breathing techniques are used for each stage of labor to control pain. Fathers are assigned the role of labor coach, and are responsible for monitoring and adjusting their partner's breathing pattern throughout childbirth.
In 1965, obstetrician Robert A. Bradley, MD wrote "Husband Coached Childbirth." The Bradley method perhaps is the easiest to remember, BRAD ley necessitates the presence of the FATHER during labor. Bradley Method views birth as a natural process. This method also emphasizes the importance of actively involving fathers in the labor process. Fathers are taught ways to help ease their partner's pain during childbirth through guided relaxation and slow abdominal breathing.
James Young Simpson is an english doctor and the first to apply anesthesia during labor and child birth. He uses ETHER to alleviate labor pain. He then discovered the effects of chloroform as an anesthetic agent. Because of his works, He was recognized by Queen Victoria because the queen herself uses Simpson's chloroform in alleviating labor pain when she gave birth to prince leopold.
87. Which sign would alert the nurse that Pillar is entering the second stage of labor? [1]
A. Increase frequency and intensity of contraction
B. Perineum bulges and anal orifice dilates
C. Effacement of internal OS is 100%
D. Vulva encircles the largest diameter of presenting part
* The second stage of labor begins as the cervical internal os is 100% effaced and fully dilated. It ends after the fetus has been delivered. Crowning, as in letter B and D is too late of a sign to alert the nurse that Pillar is entering the second stage of labor. A occurs during the first stage of labor.
88. Nursing care during the second stage of labor should include [1]
A. Careful evaluation of prenatal history
B. Coach breathing, Bear down with each contraction and encourage patient.
C. Shave the perineum
D. Administer enema to the patient
* The second stage of labor begins with a full cervical dilation and effacement and finishes when the baby is fully delivered. Careful evaluation of prenatal history is done on admission and check ups and is never done in the second stage of labor. Shaving the perineum and enema are done during the first stage of labor in preparation for delivery or before labor begins when client is admitted. Enema is not a routine procedure before delivery, but can be done to prevent defecation during labor. B is appropriate during the second stage of labor when the client's contraction is at it's peak and dilation and effacement are at maximum to help client accomplish the task of giving birth.
SITUATION : [NBLUE170] Baby boy perez was delivered spontaneously following a term pregnancy. Apgar scores are 8 and 9 respectively. Routine procedures are carried out.
89. When is the APGAR Score taken? [1]
A. Immediately after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
B. At 5 minutes after birth and at 30 minutes after birth
C. At 1 minute after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
D. Immediately after birth and at 5 minutes after birth
* APGAR score taken 1 minute after birth determines the initial status of the newborn while the 5 minute assessment after birth determines how well the newborn is adjusting to the extrauterine life.
90. The best way to position a newborn during the first week of life is to lay him [3]
A. Prone with head slightly elevated
B. On his back, flat
C. On his side with his head flat on bed
D. On his back with head slightly elevated
* Sudden infant death syndrome occurs when the fetus is in prone position. Knowing this will allow you to eliminate A first. During the first week of life, The fetus has an immature cardiac sphincter and musculature for swallowing, Knowing this will let you eliminate B and D. Side lying position is the best position for a neonate during the first few weeks of life. This will decrease the risk of aspiration of secretion.
91. Baby boy perez has a large sebaceous glands on his nose, chin, and forehead. These are known as [1]
A. Milia
B. Lanugo
C. Hemangiomas
D. Mongolian spots
* Newborn sebaceous glands are sometimes unopened or plugged. They are called MILIA. They will disappear once the gland opens at around 2 weeks after delivery. They are characterized by a pinpoint white papule. Lanugo is the fine hair that covers the newborn. It disappears starting 2 weeks after birth. A premature infant has more lanugo than a post mature infant. Hemangiomas are vascular tumors of the skin. Mongolian spots are patches that are gray in color and are often found in sacrum or buttocks. They disappear as the child grows older.
92. Baby boy perez must be carefully observed for the first 24 hours for [2]
A. Respiratory distress
B. Duration of cry
C. Frequency of voiding
D. Range in body temperature
* Range in body temperature needs to be observed and carefully monitored for the first 24 hours after delivery. A newborn has an inadequate and immature temperature regulating mechanism. RDS is observed immediately after delivery, not in a continuous 24 hour observation. Once the fetus establish a normal breathing pattern it is not anymore of a concern. RDS occurs when the Surfactants are absent or insufficient. The adequacy of these surfactants is measured by the L:S ratio [ Lecithin : Spingomyelin ] An L:S ratio of 2:1 is considered, mature and adequate to sustain fetal lung expansion and ventilation. Therefore, A child born without RDS is unlikely to have RDS in 24 hours.
Another thing that is carefully observed during the first 24 hours is the meconium. Absent of meconium during the first 24 hours after birth warrants further investigation by the attending physician.
93. According to the WHO , when should the mother starts breastfeeding the infant? [4]
A. Within 30 minutes after birth
B. Within 12 hours after birth
C. Within a day after birth
D. After infant's condition stabilizes
* According to the world health organization, The mother should start breastfeeding her infant within 30 minutes after birth.
94. What is the BEST and most accurate method of measuring the medication dosage for infants and children? [3]
A. Weight
B. Height
C. Nomogram
D. Weight and Height
* A nomogram is the most accurate method for measuring medication dosage for infants and children. It estimates the body surface area by drawing a line in the first column [ child's height ] towards the third column [ child's weight ]. The point in which it crosses the middle column [ BSA ] is the child's surface area.
95. The first postpartum visit should be done by the mother within [4]
A. 24 hours
B. 3 days
C. a week
D. a month
* Mother should visit the health facility 4 weeks to 6 weeks after delivery. The first post partum visit by the birth attendant is done within 24 hours after delivery, the next visit will be at 1 week after delivery and the third visit is done 2 to 4 weeks after delivery.
96. The major cause of maternal mortality in the philippines is [3]
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Hypertension
D. Other complications related to labor,delivery and puerperium
* Refer to the latest survey of FHSIS in the DOH website.
97. According to the WHO, what should be the composition of a commercialized Oral rehydration salt solution? [4]
A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 1.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 2.5g ; Sodium Chloride 3.5g; Glucose 10 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 20 g.
A. Potassium : 2.5 g. ; Sodium Bicarbonate 3.5g ; Sodium Chloride 4.5g; Glucose 10 g.
* This is the WHO ORESOL formula for the commercialized ORS. Remember PA BCG Which stands for POTASSIUM [ Pa ] SODIUM BICARBONATE [ B ] SODIUM CHLORIDE [ C ] GLUCOSE [ G ]. The numbers are easy to remember because they are just increased by 1.0 g increment starting from 1.5. Glucose however is at 20 g. So the MNEMONIC is PA BCG 1.5 2.5 3.5 20. This is the mnemonic I use and it is easy to remember that way. It is original by the way.
98. In preparing ORESOL at home, The correct composition recommnded by the DOH is [4]
A. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
B. 1 glass of water, 2 pinch of salt and 2 tsp of sugar
C. 1 glass of water, 3 pinch of salt and 4 tsp of sugar
D. 1 glass of water, 1 pinch of salt and 1 tsp of sugar
99. Milk code is a law that prohibits milk commercialization or artificial feeding for up to 2 years. Which law provides its legal basis? [4]
A. Senate bill 1044
B. RA 7600
C. Presidential Proclamation 147
D. EO 51
* Executive order # 51 prohibits milk commercialization or artificial feeding up to 2 years. That is why the milk commercials in the country has " BREAST MILK IS STILL BEST FOR BABIES UP TO 2 YEARS " After their presentation in accordance with EO 51. RA 7600 is the ROOMING IN / BREAST FEEDING ACT which requires the heatlh professionals to bring the baby to the mother for breastfeeding as early as possible. Senate bill # 1044 was created to implement RA 7600. Presidential Proclamation # 147 made WEDNESDAY as the national immunization day.
100. A 40 year old mother in her third trimester should avoid [4]
A. Traveling
B. Climbing
C. Smoking
D. Exercising
* Mother's are not prohibited to travel, climb or exercise. If long travels are expected, Mother should have a 30 minute rest period for every 2 hours of travel [ LIPPINCOTT ]. Climbing is a very vague term used by the board examiners though I assume they are referring to climbing a flight of stairs. Anyhow, SMOKING is detrimental for both mother and child no question about it and so is ALCOHOL. In thousands of questions I answered, it never fails that HANDWASHING, AVOID SMOKING, AVOID ALCOHOL are always the answer. It still depends on the question so THINK.
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